Question 1
Monckeberg medial sclerosis is characterized by calcific deposits in which layer of the vessel wall?
Correct Answer:
Tunica Media
Explanation:
Monckeberg medial sclerosis is the calcification of the tunica media of medium-sized arteries. The calcium deposits lie within the medial layer, stiffening the vessel wall while usually preserving the intima and maintaining the lumen. This distinguishes it from atherosclerosis, where the intima develops lipid-rich plaques that narrow the lumen. Medial calcification often appears as radiopaque, “pipestem” arteries and is seen more in older individuals and in conditions like diabetes or chronic kidney disease. The endothelium and adventitia are not the primary sites of these calcifications.
Question 2
The short-term regulation of blood pressure is primarily mediated by which mechanism?
Correct Answer:
Baroreceptor Reflex
Explanation:
Short-term arterial blood pressure is governed by the baroreceptor reflex, a rapid neural feedback loop. Stretch sensors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch detect changes in arterial pressure and send signals to the brainstem. The brain then adjusts autonomic output to the heart and blood vessels: if pressure rises, sympathetic activity decreases and parasympathetic activity increases, lowering heart rate, contractility, and vascular resistance; if pressure falls, the opposite occurs to raise blood pressure. This swift reflex operates within seconds to stabilize mean arterial pressure. Hormonal systems like the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis, atrial natriuretic peptide, and aldosterone regulate blood pressure more slowly by affecting blood volume and vascular tone over minutes to hours, so they are not the primary short-term regulators.
Question 3
Which of the following is a known trigger of oxidative stress leading to hemolysis in G6PD deficiency?
Correct Answer:
Sulfonamide antibiotics
Explanation:
G6PD deficiency leaves red blood cells vulnerable to oxidative stress because the NADPH-dependent glutathione system can’t be maintained, so reactive oxygen species accumulate and damage the cell membrane, sometimes forming Heinz bodies and causing hemolysis. Sulfonamide antibiotics are a classic drug-induced trigger of this oxidative stress. They act as oxidants in red cells, and without sufficient NADPH and reduced glutathione, the cells can’t neutralize the damage, leading to hemolysis in G6PD-deficient individuals. Fava beans are another known trigger due to their oxidative compounds, but among common exam choices, sulfonamides are the standard example of an oxidative drug precipitating hemolysis. Vitamin C is not typically a trigger at usual doses, and phenytoin is not a primary oxidative stress inducer in this scenario.
Question 4
Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15 encoding which protein?
Correct Answer:
Fibrillin-1
Explanation:
The main point is that Marfan syndrome arises from a defect in a gene that encodes a major extracellular matrix glycoprotein critical for elastic fiber formation. The gene on chromosome 15, FBN1, encodes fibrillin-1, which assembles into microfibrils that form the scaffold for elastin in many connective tissues. When fibrillin-1 is faulty, elastic fibers become weak, leading to the characteristic tall habitus, arachnodactyly, and especially vascular (aortic root dilatation) and ocular (lens subluxation) issues seen in Marfan. Additionally, defective fibrillin-1 disrupts sequestration of TGF-β in the extracellular matrix, contributing to the tissue fragility. Other options refer to different proteins: collagen type I is a primary structural component of bone and dermis unrelated to FBN1; elastin is a separate protein encoded by a different gene and forms the elastic fibers; laminin is a basement membrane component. Therefore, the protein encoded by FBN1 is fibrillin-1.
Question 5
Pancytopenia with hypersegmented neutrophils and an abnormal Schilling test is characteristic of which anemia?
Correct Answer:
Pernicious anemia
Explanation:
This scenario reflects a failure of vitamin B12–dependent DNA synthesis, which drives megaloblastic changes in the bone marrow. When B12 is deficient, hematopoietic cells can’t synthesize DNA properly, leading to large, immature cells and hypersegmented neutrophils. Pancytopenia arises from ineffective hematopoiesis affecting all lineages. The Schilling test measures how well vitamin B12 is absorbed in the gut; an abnormal result points to B12 malabsorption, most classically from pernicious anemia, where autoimmune destruction of intrinsic factor or gastric parietal cells impairs B12 uptake. Folate deficiency can also cause hypersegmented neutrophils and pancytopenia, since it, too, disrupts DNA synthesis, but the Schilling test would be normal because B12 absorption is unaffected. Aplastic anemia shows pancytopenia with a hypocellular marrow and does not feature hypersegmented neutrophils or rely on a Schilling test. Iron deficiency anemia typically causes microcytic changes rather than macrocytosis or hypersegmentation and is unrelated to B12 absorption testing.
Question 1
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Prepare with the CVP and GI Pathology Exam 1 Practice practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering leading, hemolysis, group, typically, and pathology. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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CVP and GI Pathology Exam 1 Practice

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on leading, hemolysis, group, typically, and pathology. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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