Cert Gastroenterology(SA) Phys Practice Questions - CMSA Sub-specialty Certificate In Gastroenterology Cert Gastroenterology(SA) Phys - South Africa Exam

Access More Questions

A 26-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with complex perianal disease consisting of two trans-sphincteric fistulae discharging purulent material. Pelvic MRI confirms active fistulous tracts with a 1.5 cm fluid collection in the ischioanal fossa. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

Immediate high-dose anti-TNF monotherapy with Infliximab Fistulotomy cutting through the sphincter complex Long-term systemic corticosteroids combined with oral metronidazole Surgical incision and drainage of the abscess with non-cutting seton placement, combined with antibiotics and anti-TNF therapy

Correct Answer:

Surgical incision and drainage of the abscess with non-cutting seton placement, combined with antibiotics and anti-TNF therapy

Access more questions from this quiz

Continue to Cert Gastroenterology(SA) Phys Practice Questions - CMSA Sub-specialty Certificate in Gastroenterology Cert Gastroenterology(SA) Phys - South Africa Exam for more practice questions and the full quiz experience.

Access More Questions