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Question 1
A 28-year-old female presents with a 6-week history of 5 to 6 bloody bowel movements daily, left lower quadrant abdominal cramping, and tenesmus. Sigmoidoscopy reveals continuous mucosal erythema, loss of vascular pattern, and granularity extending from the rectum up to 35 cm. Biopsies confirm chronic ulcerative colitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line induction and maintenance regimen?
Correct Answer:
Topical mesalazine 1 g suppository daily combined with oral mesalazine 2.4 g to 4.8 g daily
Question 2
A 32-year-old male with chronic diarrhea and weight loss undergoes colonoscopy. Endoscopy shows multiple deep linear ulcers separated by normal mucosal mucosa ('cobblestoning') in the terminal ileum and ascending colon, with sparing of the rectum. Histopathological examination of biopsies reveals non-caseating granulomas within the submucosa. Which feature is most pathognomonic for Crohn's disease over Ulcerative Colitis?
Correct Answer:
Transmural inflammation and non-caseating epithelial granulomas
Question 3
A 35-year-old male is admitted to the medical ward with acute severe ulcerative colitis (ASUC) fulfilling Truelove and Witts criteria (8 bloody stools/day, temperature 38.2°C, heart rate 104 bpm, CRP 68 mg/L). He is initiated on IV hydrocortisone 100 mg 6-hourly. On day 3 of intravenous corticosteroid therapy, he continues to pass 7 bloody stools per day and his CRP is 45 mg/L. According to the Oxford (Travis) criteria, what is his risk of requiring emergency colectomy during this admission?
Correct Answer:
85% to 90%
Question 4
A 29-year-old female with steroid-refractory acute severe ulcerative colitis on Day 3 of high-dose IV hydrocortisone is evaluated for medical rescue therapy. Stool PCR for Clostridioides difficile and rectal biopsies for CMV IHC are negative. Which statement correctly describes the comparative efficacy of intravenous Infliximab versus intravenous Ciclosporin in this setting?
Correct Answer:
Infliximab and Ciclosporin show equivalent short-term and long-term colectomy-free survival rates
Question 5
A 26-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with complex perianal disease consisting of two trans-sphincteric fistulae discharging purulent material. Pelvic MRI confirms active fistulous tracts with a 1.5 cm fluid collection in the ischioanal fossa. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy?
Correct Answer:
Surgical incision and drainage of the abscess with non-cutting seton placement, combined with antibiotics and anti-TNF therapy
Question 1
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Prepare with the Cert Gastroenterology(SA) Phys Practice Questions - CMSA Sub-specialty Certificate in Gastroenterology Cert Gastroenterology(SA) Phys - South Africa Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 100 questions covering year-old, male, presents, female, and disease. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Cert Gastroenterology(SA) Phys Practice Questions - CMSA Sub-specialty Certificate in Gastroenterology Cert Gastroenterology(SA) Phys - South Africa Exam

This practice set contains 100 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on year-old, male, presents, female, and disease. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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