Cert Medical Oncology(SA) Phys Practice Questions - Sub-specialty Certificate In Medical Oncology Of The College Of Physicians Of South Africa Exam

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A 62-year-old postmenopausal female presents with de novo metastatic ER-positive, HER2-negative breast cancer involving multiple bone lesions and asymptomatic subcentimeter lung nodules. She has an ECOG performance status of 0. Which of the following represents the preferred first-line systemic management?
Correct Answer:
A CDK4/6 inhibitor (e.g., Ribociclib or Abemaciclib) combined with a non-steroidal aromatase inhibitor (Letrozole or Anastrozole)

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