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Question 1
A 48-year-old premenopausal woman undergoes a left lumpectomy and sentinel lymph node biopsy for a 2.2 cm invasive ductal carcinoma. Pathology reveals Nottingham Grade 2 tumor, ER 95%, PR 80%, HER2 1+ (negative), and 0/2 lymph nodes involved (pT2N0M0). Genomic profiling with the 21-gene Recurrence Score (Oncotype DX) yields a score of 28. Which of the following is the most appropriate systemic adjuvant therapy recommendation based on TAILORx and RxPONDER trials?
Correct Answer:
Adjuvant chemotherapy (e.g., TC - docetaxel/cyclophosphamide) followed by tamoxifen combined with ovarian function suppression
Question 2
A 54-year-old woman presents with newly diagnosed metastatic HER2-positive invasive breast cancer with multiple liver and bone metastases. Echocardiogram demonstrates a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of 62%. Baseline lab tests are normal. According to the landmark CLEOPATRA trial and international guidelines, what is the preferred first-line systemic regimen?
Correct Answer:
Pertuzumab + Trastuzumab + Docetaxel
Question 3
A 52-year-old female with metastatic HER2-positive breast cancer experiences disease progression in the liver and lungs while receiving first-line Pertuzumab, Trastuzumab, and Docetaxel. Her ECOG performance status is 1. What is the most appropriate second-line systemic treatment choice supported by the DESTINY-Breast03 phase III trial?
Correct Answer:
Trastuzumab deruxtecan (T-DXd)
Question 4
A 42-year-old female is diagnosed with stage IIB triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC, cT2cN1M0). Core biopsy shows Nottingham Grade 3 invasive ductal carcinoma, ER
Correct Answer:
Pembrolizumab + Carboplatin + Paclitaxel, followed by Pembrolizumab + AC, then post-operative adjuvant Pembrolizumab
Question 5
A 62-year-old postmenopausal female presents with de novo metastatic ER-positive, HER2-negative breast cancer involving multiple bone lesions and asymptomatic subcentimeter lung nodules. She has an ECOG performance status of 0. Which of the following represents the preferred first-line systemic management?
Correct Answer:
A CDK4/6 inhibitor (e.g., Ribociclib or Abemaciclib) combined with a non-steroidal aromatase inhibitor (Letrozole or Anastrozole)
Question 1
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About this Exam

Prepare with the Cert Medical Oncology(SA) Phys Practice Questions - Sub-specialty Certificate in Medical Oncology of the College of Physicians of South Africa Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 100 questions covering year-old, trial, first-line, metastatic, and cancer. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Cert Medical Oncology(SA) Phys Practice Questions - Sub-specialty Certificate in Medical Oncology of the College of Physicians of South Africa Exam

This practice set contains 100 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on year-old, trial, first-line, metastatic, and cancer. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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