FRCS Neurosurgery Practice Questions - Intercollegiate Specialty Fellowship Examination In Neurosurgery (FRCS SN) Exam

Access More Questions

A 30-year-old woman has secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Serum prolactin is markedly elevated at 8,000 mU/L and MRI shows a 1.5 cm pituitary macroadenoma. There is no visual field defect. What is the most appropriate first-line management?

Dopamine agonist (cabergoline) Transsphenoidal surgical resection Stereotactic radiosurgery Bilateral adrenalectomy

Correct Answer:

Dopamine agonist (cabergoline)

Access more questions from this quiz

Continue to FRCS Neurosurgery Practice Questions - Intercollegiate Specialty Fellowship Examination in Neurosurgery (FRCS SN) Exam for more practice questions and the full quiz experience.

Access More Questions