Arab Board Oncology Clinical Practice Questions - Arab Board Medical Oncology Final Practical Clinical Examination - الامتحان النهائي العملي لاختصاص طب الأورام (ABHS) Exam

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A 60-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with newly diagnosed de novo metastatic invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast with multiple asymptomatic osteolytic bone metastases and two small asymptomatic liver lesions. Biopsy confirms ER 90%, PR 70%, and HER2 IHC 1+ (HER2-negative). She has no visceral crisis and an ECOG performance status of 1. What is the preferred first-line systemic therapy?

An aromatase inhibitor (e.g., letrozole) plus a CDK4/6 inhibitor (e.g., ribociclib, abemaciclib, or palbociclib) Single-agent chemotherapy with capecitabine Combination chemotherapy with doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide (AC) Tamoxifen monotherapy

Correct Answer:

An aromatase inhibitor (e.g., letrozole) plus a CDK4/6 inhibitor (e.g., ribociclib, abemaciclib, or palbociclib)

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