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Question 1
A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman undergoes lumpectomy and sentinel lymph node biopsy for a 2.1 cm invasive ductal carcinoma. Pathology reveals grade 2 carcinoma, ER 95%, PR 80%, HER2-negative (IHC 0), and 1 sentinel lymph node containing a 1.2 mm micrometastasis (pN1mi). Genomic profiling reveals a 21-gene Recurrence Score (RS) of 14. What is the most appropriate adjuvant systemic therapy?
Correct Answer:
Adjuvant endocrine therapy alone with an aromatase inhibitor
Question 2
A 45-year-old premenopausal woman with clinical stage IIA (cT2N0M0) HER2-positive (IHC 3+), ER-negative breast cancer completes 6 cycles of neoadjuvant TCHP (docetaxel, carboplatin, trastuzumab, and pertuzumab). She undergoes breast-conserving surgery, and final surgical pathology reveals a 1.2 cm residual invasive carcinoma in the breast with negative margins and clear lymph nodes (ypT1c ypN0). What is the preferred adjuvant HER2-targeted therapy?
Correct Answer:
Trastuzumab emtansine (T-DM1) for 14 cycles
Question 3
A 38-year-old woman presents with a 3.5 cm palpable mass in the left breast and ipsilateral mobile axillary lymphadenopathy. Core biopsy confirms grade 3 invasive ductal carcinoma, ER 0%, PR 0%, HER2-negative (triple-negative breast cancer). Staging CT and bone scan show no distant metastases (cT2N1M0). What is the standard neoadjuvant systemic therapy regimen?
Correct Answer:
Pembrolizumab combined with carboplatin and paclitaxel, followed by pembrolizumab with doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide
Question 4
A 60-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with newly diagnosed de novo metastatic invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast with multiple asymptomatic osteolytic bone metastases and two small asymptomatic liver lesions. Biopsy confirms ER 90%, PR 70%, and HER2 IHC 1+ (HER2-negative). She has no visceral crisis and an ECOG performance status of 1. What is the preferred first-line systemic therapy?
Correct Answer:
An aromatase inhibitor (e.g., letrozole) plus a CDK4/6 inhibitor (e.g., ribociclib, abemaciclib, or palbociclib)
Question 5
A 56-year-old woman with metastatic ER-positive, HER2-negative breast cancer experiences disease progression after 24 months on first-line letrozole plus palbociclib. Circulating tumor DNA (ctDNA) next-generation sequencing identifies an activating ESR1 mutation (Y537S). The tumor is PIK3CA wild-type and BRCA1/2 wild-type. What is the most appropriate next-line targeted endocrine therapy?
Correct Answer:
Elacestrant oral monotherapy
Question 1
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Prepare with the Arab Board Oncology Clinical Practice Questions - Arab Board Medical Oncology Final Practical Clinical Examination - الامتحان النهائي العملي لاختصاص طب الأورام (ABHS) Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 100 questions covering year-old, therapy, standard, woman, and carcinoma. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Arab Board Oncology Clinical Practice Questions - Arab Board Medical Oncology Final Practical Clinical Examination - الامتحان النهائي العملي لاختصاص طب الأورام (ABHS) Exam

This practice set contains 100 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on year-old, therapy, standard, woman, and carcinoma. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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