ABPath Neuropathology Practice Questions - ABPath Neuropathology Subspecialty Certification Examination Exam

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A 42-year-old woman presents with a new-onset seizure. MRI shows a non-enhancing, T2-hyperintense, infiltrative mass in the right frontal lobe. Biopsy shows a moderately cellular astrocytic neoplasm with atypia but no microvascular proliferation or necrosis. IHC shows IDH1 R132H positive and ATRX loss. 1p/19q is retained. Which diagnosis per WHO CNS 2021 is most appropriate?

Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant, CNS WHO grade 2 Oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant and 1p/19q-codeleted, CNS WHO grade 2 Glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype, CNS WHO grade 4 Diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27-altered

Correct Answer:

Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant, CNS WHO grade 2

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