Internal Medicine Board Practice Questions - Saudi Board Internal Medicine Final Written Exam

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A 28-year-old woman is referred for evaluation of resistant hypertension. She has been on three antihypertensive medications (amlodipine, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide) at optimal doses for 6 months. On physical examination, a bruit is heard over her right flank. Renal artery duplex ultrasound suggests stenosis of the mid-to-distal right renal artery. What is the most likely diagnosis and preferred management?

Fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD); percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) without stenting Atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis (ARAS); renal artery stenting Pheochromocytoma; surgical resection of the adrenal gland Primary aldosteronism; spironolactone titration

Correct Answer:

Fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD); percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) without stenting

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