Question 1
A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with 2 hours of crushing substernal chest pain. The ECG reveals 3-mm ST-segment elevation in leads V2-V4. The nearest PCI-capable hospital is 90 minutes away, but transfer and door-to-balloon time is expected to exceed 120 minutes. What is the most appropriate reperfusion strategy?
Correct Answer:
Immediate fibrinolytic therapy with tenecteplase followed by transfer for coronary angiography
Question 2
A 64-year-old woman with a history of chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, EF 32%) presents for a routine follow-up. She is currently asymptomatic on bisoprolol 5 mg daily and lisinopril 10 mg daily. Her blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg and heart rate is 64 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in optimizing her medical therapy?
Correct Answer:
Switch lisinopril to sacubitril-valsartan, and add spironolactone and an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin/empagliflozin)
Question 3
A 71-year-old man with hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and chronic kidney disease (eGFR 42 mL/min/1.73 m²) is newly diagnosed with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation. What is the most appropriate management for stroke prevention in this patient?
Correct Answer:
Oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban
Question 4
A 28-year-old woman is referred for evaluation of resistant hypertension. She has been on three antihypertensive medications (amlodipine, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide) at optimal doses for 6 months. On physical examination, a bruit is heard over her right flank. Renal artery duplex ultrasound suggests stenosis of the mid-to-distal right renal artery. What is the most likely diagnosis and preferred management?
Correct Answer:
Fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD); percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) without stenting
Question 5
A 34-year-old man presents with sharp, retrosternal chest pain that is worse when lying flat and improves when sitting forward. He reports having a mild upper respiratory tract infection 2 weeks ago. His ECG shows diffuse, concave-upward ST-segment elevation with PR-segment depression in lead II and PR-segment elevation in lead aVR. What is the first-line pharmacotherapy for this patient?
Correct Answer:
High-dose ibuprofen or aspirin combined with colchicine
Question 1
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Prepare with the Internal Medicine Board Practice Questions - Saudi Board Internal Medicine Final Written Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 100 questions covering year-old, presents, woman, history, and serum. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Internal Medicine Board Practice Questions - Saudi Board Internal Medicine Final Written Exam

This practice set contains 100 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on year-old, presents, woman, history, and serum. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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