Internal Medicine Board Practice Questions - Saudi Board Internal Medicine Final Written Exam

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A 71-year-old man with hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and chronic kidney disease (eGFR 42 mL/min/1.73 m²) is newly diagnosed with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation. What is the most appropriate management for stroke prevention in this patient?

Oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel Oral anticoagulation with warfarin targeting an INR of 2.0-3.0 Aspirin 81 mg daily monotherapy

Correct Answer:

Oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban

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