Internal Medicine Board Practice Questions - Saudi Board Internal Medicine Final Written Exam

Access More Questions

A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with 2 hours of crushing substernal chest pain. The ECG reveals 3-mm ST-segment elevation in leads V2-V4. The nearest PCI-capable hospital is 90 minutes away, but transfer and door-to-balloon time is expected to exceed 120 minutes. What is the most appropriate reperfusion strategy?

Immediate fibrinolytic therapy with tenecteplase followed by transfer for coronary angiography Transfer for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) despite the expected delay Intravenous heparin infusion and double antiplatelet therapy with delayed outpatient angiography Emergency coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) surgery

Correct Answer:

Immediate fibrinolytic therapy with tenecteplase followed by transfer for coronary angiography

Access more questions from this quiz

Continue to Internal Medicine Board Practice Questions - Saudi Board Internal Medicine Final Written Exam for more practice questions and the full quiz experience.

Access More Questions