American Board Of Pathology (ABPath) Clinical Pathology Certification Exam

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A 68-year-old male with a history of myelodysplastic syndrome receives a transfusion of 2 units of packed red blood cells. Five days later, he presents with a low-grade fever, mild jaundice, and a greater than expected drop in his hemoglobin level. A direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is now positive. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD) Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction

Correct Answer:

Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

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