Question 1
What is the purpose of the PUSH scale?
Correct Answer:
To classify pressure injuries into stages
Explanation:
The PUSH scale is used to monitor healing progression of a pressure ulcer over time by quantifying wound characteristics. It assigns scores to three key factors: wound size (length and width), amount of drainage (exudate), and tissue type present in the wound (such as granulation tissue, slough, or necrotic tissue). By tracking these values and summing them, clinicians can see whether the wound is healing, remaining stable, or deteriorating and adjust treatment accordingly. It is not used to classify the injury into stages or to measure pain or Braden risk scores.
Question 2
Which type of skin cancer is most common and typically slower-growing in fair-skinned individuals?
Correct Answer:
Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:
Basal cell carcinoma is the most common skin cancer and is known for its slow, local growth rather than rapid, widespread spread. In fair-skinned individuals, UV damage over years can trigger abnormal growth of basal cells in the epidermis, leading to these cancers. They typically grow gradually, remain localized for a long time, and rarely spread to distant sites, which is why they’re described as slow-growing and low-risk for metastasis. This makes them the best fit for the scenario of being the most common cancer in fair-skinned people and growing more slowly. In contrast, melanoma, while serious, is less common and can progress much more quickly and metastasize; squamous cell carcinoma is also common but tends to behave more aggressively than basal cell carcinoma and has a higher metastatic potential than basal cell carcinoma. Merkel cell carcinoma is rare and highly aggressive. recognizing that basal cell carcinoma’s prevalence and indolent course in fair-skinned individuals aligns with the description helps you identify it as the correct choice. Treatments like surgical excision or Mohs surgery are highly effective when caught early, reinforcing the importance of early detection.
Question 3
When should wound cultures be obtained during infection assessment?
Correct Answer:
When signs persist or worsen
Explanation:
Obtaining a wound culture is about confirming infection and guiding treatment when infection is actually present or likely to be worsening. You don’t culture every wound right after injury because early on many wounds are not infected, and a culture could be misleading or unnecessary. A culture is most useful when signs of infection persist or worsen—such as increasing redness, warmth, swelling, purulent drainage, foul odor, or systemic symptoms—or when a patient isn’t improving on initial, broad‑spectrum therapy. In those cases, sampling from the wound bed or purulent material (preferably deep tissue or a biopsy rather than a superficial swab) helps identify the causative organism and its antibiotic sensitivities so therapy can be targeted. If there are no infection signs and the wound is healing with standard care, a culture isn’t indicated.
Question 4
What is the role of the interprofessional team in wound care?
Correct Answer:
Collaborating among nurses, providers, dermatologists, surgeons, wound care nurses, and care managers.
Explanation:
Wound healing is a multifactorial process that benefits from input from many professionals who bring different expertise to assessment, planning, and treatment. The interprofessional team approach ensures the wound is evaluated not only for local tissue status but also for systemic factors such as infection risk, vascular adequacy, nutrition, and underlying conditions, and that the plan is carried out across all care settings. The best answer reflects collaboration among nurses, providers, dermatologists, surgeons, wound care nurses, and care managers. Each member contributes a piece of the puzzle: nurses monitor wound progression and changes, physicians address medical management and underlying causes, dermatologists or surgeons provide specialized interventions when needed, wound care nurses apply and adjust advanced dressings and therapies, and care managers coordinate transitions, home care, and follow-up. This coordinated effort improves accuracy of wound assessment, ensures appropriate treatments, reduces gaps in care, and supports safe, efficient healing. Isolated nursing care, involvement of only physicians, or nurses working independently without others all miss essential teamwork aspects that drive effective wound management and patient safety.
Question 5
Staples are commonly removed within how many days?
Correct Answer:
7-14 days
Explanation:
Removing staples around 7-14 days matches when skin incisions have gained enough tensile strength to hold closed but before lingering too long risks skin irritation or infection. If staples are removed earlier (3-5 days), the wound may still be too fragile and could reopen. Waiting much longer (21-28 days or 60 days) offers little added benefit and increases the chance of irritation, infection, or removal-related trauma. Location and healing factors can adjust the exact timing, but the standard window is about one to two weeks after closure.
Question 1
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About this Exam

Prepare with the Tissue Integrity NSG 100 Exam 3 Practice practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering wound, healing, scale, tissue, and integrity. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Tissue Integrity NSG 100 Exam 3 Practice

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on wound, healing, scale, tissue, and integrity. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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