Question 1
Since 2014, plans report their MLRs and are subject to penalties if their MLRs do not meet the ____% requirements.
Correct Answer:
85%
Explanation:
The key idea is that medical loss ratio (MLR) sets a minimum share of premium dollars that must go toward medical care and quality improvement, not administrative costs or profits. Since the Affordable Care Act, plans in the large-group market must meet an 85% MLR; if they don’t, they have to issue rebates to enrollees and may face penalties. This threshold is the one addressed by the question, which is why 85% is the correct standard to reference for penalties in this context. For contrast, the 80% threshold applies to the individual and small-group markets, but the question’s focus on penalties in this setting points to the 85% requirement for large groups.
Question 2
EPSDT stands for what?
Correct Answer:
Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment
Explanation:
EPSDT stands for Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment. This name reflects Medicaid’s obligation to provide comprehensive, preventive health services for children under 21, delivered at regular intervals, with appropriate diagnostic follow-up and treatment when issues are identified. The emphasis on both early and periodic screening ensures ongoing monitoring rather than a one-time check. The other options don’t fit because they replace key terms or omit critical components like diagnosis and treatment.
Question 3
The MLR represents the percentage of ______ used for patient care.
Correct Answer:
Revenue
Explanation:
Medical Loss Ratio shows how much of the money collected from premiums actually goes to patient care. It’s calculated by taking the amount spent on medical claims plus any quality improvement costs and dividing that by the premiums earned. In other words, it expresses the portion of premium dollars that are used to pay for patient care. Therefore, the blank should be filled with premium dollars (premiums earned), since that is the source of funds being allocated to care. The numerator covers claims and care-related costs, while the denominator is the premium revenue that the insurer earns.
Question 4
Which statement correctly describes coordination of benefits hierarchy?
Correct Answer:
They decide which payer pays first based on primary vs secondary rules, policy provisions, and dependent status
Explanation:
Coordination of benefits determines which payer pays first when a patient has more than one health insurance policy. The statement that best captures this is that the payer order is decided by primary versus secondary rules, policy provisions, and dependent status. This hierarchy ensures that benefits are coordinated so the total payments don’t exceed the cost of care: the primary plan pays first up to its limits, and the secondary plan may cover remaining eligible expenses according to its own rules. Dependent status—such as a child covered by both parents’ plans—and specific policy provisions (like birthday rules or employer-based guidelines) drive which plan is primary. The other options describe different concepts. One refers to the order of providers within a network, which is a network arrangement rather than COB. Another mentions eligibility by age, which is not about payer sequencing. The last refers to setting the maximum allowable charge, which is about allowed amounts, not which insurer pays first.
Question 5
When a denial cites medical necessity, what actions should be taken?
Correct Answer:
Review policy, update documentation, provide clinical justification, and appeal
Explanation:
When a denial cites medical necessity, the appropriate response is to verify the payer’s criteria and strengthen the case for coverage. Start by reviewing the specific medical necessity policy and the member’s benefits to confirm what criteria must be met. If the service can meet those criteria, gather and update the documentation to clearly show why it’s medically necessary: articulate the patient’s diagnosis, symptoms, treatment goals, and how the requested service addresses those needs; include supporting data such as progress notes, test results, imaging, previous treatments tried, and the ordering clinician’s rationale. Make sure coding and billing align with the documented rationale, and address any gaps the payer noted. Then file an appeal within the allowed timeline, attaching the updated clinical justification and all supporting records. If the denial remains unresolved, consider requesting a peer-to-peer review or other level of review as part of the appeal process. This approach directly targets the payer’s requirement for evidence of medical necessity and makes a clear, documented case for why the service is warranted. Resubmitting with no changes, ignoring the denial, or altering patient demographics would not address the payer’s reason for denial and could create ethical or legal issues.
Question 1
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Prepare with the Third Party Payers Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering mlrs, stands, patient, payments, and part. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Third Party Payers Practice Test

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