Question 1
A 62-year-old male with ischemic cardiomyopathy and NYHA Class III heart failure has a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of 28% despite optimized treatment with enalapril 20 mg BID, carvedilol 25 mg BID, and spironolactone 25 mg daily. His blood pressure is 118/74 mmHg, heart rate is 68 bpm (sinus rhythm), serum potassium is 4.4 mEq/L, and eGFR is 58 mL/min/1.73 m². According to the Diretriz Brasileira de Insuficiência Cardíaca (SBC), what is the most appropriate next step in disease-modifying therapy?
Correct Answer:
Switch enalapril to sacubitril/valsartan (with a 36-hour washout period) and add an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin).
Question 2
A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department (Unidade de Pronto Atendimento - UPA) with crushing substernal chest pain of 90 minutes' duration radiating to the left arm. Electrocardiogram reveals 3 mm ST-segment elevation in leads V1–V4 with reciprocal ST depression in II, III, and aVF. The nearest PCI-capable hospital is 3 hours away by ground ambulance. According to Brazilian acute coronary syndrome guidelines, what is the best immediate reperfusion strategy?
Correct Answer:
Administer intravenous fibrinolytic therapy (e.g., tenecteplase or alteplase) immediately within 10 minutes (door-to-needle), followed by transfer for pharmaco-invasive coronary angiography within 2 to 24 hours.
Question 3
A 71-year-old female with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and permanent non-valvular atrial fibrillation has normal renal function. She has no history of stroke, TIA, or vascular disease. According to the CHA2DS2-VASc score and Brazilian cardiology consensus, what is her score and recommended stroke prevention strategy?
Correct Answer:
Score = 4; oral anticoagulation with a Direct Oral Anticoagulant (DOAC, e.g., apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, or edoxaban) is strongly recommended.
Question 4
A 48-year-old male with untreated hypertension presents to the emergency department with severe throbbing headache, blurred vision, and dyspnea. Vital signs show BP 224/132 mmHg, HR 96 bpm, RR 26 bpm, and SpO2 90% on room air. Fundoscopy reveals bilateral flame-shaped hemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and bilateral optic disc swelling (papilledema). Chest radiograph demonstrates diffuse pulmonary edema. What is the diagnosis and the most appropriate immediate pharmacological management?
Correct Answer:
Hypertensive emergency with acute pulmonary edema and malignant nephrosclerosis/retinopathy; initiate continuous intravenous sodium nitroprusside or nitroglycerin with intravenous furosemide, targeting a 20% to 25% reduction in mean arterial pressure within the first hour.
Question 5
A 54-year-old male with a history of bicuspid aortic valve presents with 3 weeks of low-grade fever, malaise, night sweats, and a new holosystolic regurgitant murmur at the apex. Physical exam reveals non-tender erythematous macules on the palms (Janeway lesions) and subungual splinter hemorrhages. Blood cultures (3 sets drawn over 2 hours) grow Streptococcus gallolyticus (formerly S. bovis). In addition to targeted antibiotic therapy and echocardiography, what essential diagnostic investigation must be scheduled?
Correct Answer:
Total colonoscopy to screen for occult colorectal neoplasia or adenomatous polyps.
Question 1
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Prepare with the TECM Clínica Médica Practice Questions - TECM - Título de Especialista em Clínica Médica (SBCM, Brazil) Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 100 questions covering year-old, presents, serum, male, and mmhg. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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TECM Clínica Médica Practice Questions - TECM - Título de Especialista em Clínica Médica (SBCM, Brazil) Exam

This practice set contains 100 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on year-old, presents, serum, male, and mmhg. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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