Question 1
What is the first-line treatment for Kawasaki disease?
Correct Answer:
Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) and high-dose aspirin
Explanation:
Kawasaki disease is a pediatric vasculitis where the biggest danger is getting coronary artery aneurysms if the inflammation isn’t quickly controlled. The best first-line approach combines intravenous immunoglobulin with high-dose aspirin. IVIG rapidly dampens the exaggerated immune response and substantially lowers the risk of coronary complications when given early in the illness. High-dose aspirin helps relieve inflammation and fever during the acute phase, and after fever subsides, low-dose aspirin provides an antiplatelet effect to reduce thrombosis risk in inflamed coronary vessels. Antibiotics alone won’t address the vascular inflammation, so they aren’t first-line. Steroids can be helpful in certain situations or as an adjunct, but they’re not typically the initial sole therapy. Anticoagulation therapy isn’t used as first-line treatment and is reserved for specific high-risk coronary artery situations.
Question 2
Cupping of the optic disc is most characteristic of which condition?
Correct Answer:
Cupping of the optic disc due to loss of retinal ganglion cell axons
Explanation:
Cupping of the optic disc reflects loss of retinal ganglion cell axons with thinning of the neuroretinal rim, causing the optic cup to enlarge relative to the disc. This pattern is most characteristic of glaucomatous optic neuropathy, where damage to the retinal ganglion cells and their axons from elevated intraocular pressure leads to progressive cupping and visual field loss. Retinal detachment affects the retina, macular degeneration targets the macula and central vision, and cataract involves lens opacity—not the optic nerve or cup-to-disc ratio. A normal cup-to-disc ratio is about 0.3; a larger cup suggests glaucomatous damage.
Question 3
In a 39-year-old woman with a history of spontaneous abortion, symmetric uterine enlargement and a red vascular nodule in the posterior fornix that bleeds easily, the most likely diagnosis is which?
Correct Answer:
Choriocarcinoma
Explanation:
This scenario points to a gestational trophoblastic neoplasm, specifically choriocarcinoma, arising after a pregnancy event. Choriocarcinoma is highly vascular and secretes large amounts of hCG, so the uterus becomes symmetrically enlarged and vaginal or cervical metastases are common. A red, friable vascular nodule in the posterior fornix that bleeds easily is a classic appearance of a vaginal metastasis from this tumor. Endometrial carcinoma would more typically present with abnormal uterine bleeding in an older patient and not with a friable vaginal vascular lesion. Ovarian cystadenocarcinoma would usually present with an adnexal mass and ascites rather than a vascular vaginal nodule. Leiomyosarcoma causes rapid uterine enlargement and uterine symptoms but lacks the characteristic hemorrhagic vaginal metastasis. So, the presentation aligns best with choriocarcinoma.
Question 4
In a patient with acute gout who recently had a drug-eluting stent placed and is hospitalized for congestive heart failure, which anti-gout medication is preferred?
Correct Answer:
Colchicine
Explanation:
Colchicine is favored for an acute gout flare when heart failure and recent drug-eluting stent placement are in play because it relieves inflammation without the fluid-retaining, kidney-impairing, or bleeding risks tied to NSAIDs in congestive heart failure and while on dual antiplatelet therapy. Colchicine works by inhibiting neutrophil chemotaxis and inflammasome-driven inflammation, which dampens the acute joint attack without affecting platelet function. NSAIDs are avoided here because they can worsen heart failure course by causing sodium and water retention and reduce renal perfusion, plus they raise GI bleeding risk when a patient is on antiplatelet therapy after stent placement. Corticosteroids can be used if NSAIDs are unsuitable, but they carry risks like fluid retention and hyperglycemia that may complicate heart failure. Allopurinol is aimed at long-term urate lowering and isn’t used to treat an acute flare, since starting urate-lowering therapy during an attack can prolong symptoms.
Question 5
Initial management of an acute upper GI bleed with hemodynamic instability includes which of the following?
Correct Answer:
Rapid IV fluids and blood products as needed; PPI infusion; urgent endoscopy within 24 hours
Explanation:
When there is an acute upper GI bleed with hemodynamic instability, the priority is to restore perfusion and control ongoing blood loss while preparing for diagnostic and therapeutic intervention. Begin with rapid IV fluid resuscitation and administer blood products as needed to stabilize circulation and oxygen delivery. A high-dose IV proton pump inhibitor is given to elevate gastric pH and stabilize clots, reducing the risk of rebleeding. Once the patient is hemodynamically stable enough for endoscopic evaluation, perform urgent endoscopy within 24 hours to identify the source and provide definitive hemostasis if possible. Delaying intervention or relying on oral rehydration alone would leave the patient at persistent risk, and proceeding to surgery without resuscitation is unsafe. This sequence optimizes survival and shortens the time to source control.
Question 1
Exam overview

About this Exam

Prepare with the Step 2 UWorld Self-Assessment (UWSA) 2 Practice Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering characteristic, patient, acute, failure, and associated. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

More details

Additional Information

Step 2 UWorld Self-Assessment (UWSA) 2 Practice Exam

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on characteristic, patient, acute, failure, and associated. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

Quiz information

Frequently Asked Questions

The complete question count is available after full access is unlocked.
No fixed duration is currently configured for this quiz.
Question explanations are included where they are available in the quiz content, helping you review the reasoning after answering.
Yes. You can retake the practice test again as you continue studying during your available access period.
After your access is confirmed, you can continue into the complete practice exam from this quiz flow.
Unless explicitly stated otherwise, this page provides independent practice material for study and exam preparation and is not the official examination itself.
Keep studying

Related Questions