Question 1
Which glomerulonephritis shows granular 'lumpy-bumpy' immunofluorescence with subepithelial humps on electron microscopy?
Correct Answer:
Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Explanation:
The main idea is that immune complex–mediated glomerulonephritis after an infection shows a granular, "lumpy-bumpy" immune deposit pattern and subepithelial immune-complex humps. After a streptococcal infection, circulating immune complexes lodge along the glomerular basement membrane and in the mesangium, producing a granular appearance on immunofluorescence with IgG, IgM, and C3. Electron microscopy then reveals subepithelial humps, which are immune complex deposits on the epithelial side of the GBM. This combination is classic for poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. Other patterns don’t fit as well: Goodpasture disease shows a linear immunofluorescence from anti-GBM antibodies and lacks these subepithelial humps; membranoproliferative GN often has a tram-track appearance with different deposition patterns (and is not defined by subepithelial humps); IgA nephropathy has predominant IgA in the mesangium and does not present with the postinfectious granular lumpy-bumpy pattern or subepithelial humps.
Question 2
Which therapy causes DNA double-strand breaks via free radical formation?
Correct Answer:
Radiation therapy
Explanation:
Ionizing radiation damages DNA by generating free radicals inside cells. When radiation interacts with water, it splits molecules to create reactive oxygen species, especially hydroxyl radicals, which then attack DNA and produce breaks in both strands. Double-strand breaks are highly lethal to cells, so this is a primary way radiation therapy kills cancer cells. The other options don't rely on free-radical–mediated DNA damage in this context: antibiotics target microbial processes, vitamin C mainly acts as an antioxidant (though high doses can be pro-oxidant but aren’t used to induce DNA double-strand breaks in therapy), and antivirals inhibit viral replication rather than causing host DNA breaks via ROS.
Question 3
Among adult supratentorial brain tumors, which is classically benign?
Correct Answer:
Meningioma
Explanation:
Meningioma is classically benign in adults with supratentorial tumors. These lesions arise from arachnoid cap cells and grow on the dura as extra-axial, well-circumscribed masses. They are usually WHO grade I, slow-growing, and tend to compress adjacent brain tissue without invading it, which is why they have a favorable prognosis with complete surgical resection. Imaging often shows a dural-based mass with a characteristic dural tail. Metastases to the brain are not primary tumors and can be multiple with variable aggressiveness, so they don’t fit the typical benign, solitary, extra-axial pattern. Glioblastoma multiforme is a highly malignant, infiltrative astrocytoma with necrosis and a poor prognosis. Schwannomas are benign nerve sheath tumors, but they most commonly involve the cranial nerves in the cerebellopontine angle (infratentorial SAMPLEregion) rather than presenting as a classic supratentorial benign tumor.
Question 4
Which medications are commonly implicated in acute interstitial nephritis?
Correct Answer:
NSAIDs, penicillin, diuretics
Explanation:
Acute interstitial nephritis is an immune-driven inflammation of the kidney interstitium that often arises as a reaction to certain medications. The drugs most commonly linked to this condition are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, penicillin-type antibiotics, and diuretics. After starting one of these agents, the immune system can mount a hypersensitivity response in the kidney that brings in inflammatory cells, especially eosinophils, leading to edema and impaired tubulointerstitial function. Clinical clues often include fever, rash, and sometimes eosinophilia or eosinophils seen in the urine, with a rise in creatinine indicating acute kidney injury. The primary step in management is stopping the offending drug, which frequently results in improvement. In more severe or persistent cases, corticosteroids may be used to hasten recovery. Other medications can affect the kidneys in other ways, but they are not classic culprits for acute interstitial nephritis, which is why this trio stands out as the typical offenders.
Question 5
What is the recommended approach to preventing tumor lysis syndrome?
Correct Answer:
Allopurinol or Rasburicase; Probenecid is only for patients with GOOD renal function
Explanation:
Preventing tumor lysis syndrome centers on keeping uric acid from harming the kidneys by either lowering its production or rapidly removing what’s already present. Allopurinol works by inhibiting xanthine oxidase, so less uric acid is formed from purines. This helps prevent uric acid buildup in patients with functioning kidneys and is a standard preventive approach. Rasburicase, on the other hand, rapidly converts existing uric acid into a soluble, easily excreted form, providing quick control of uric acid in high-risk situations or when uric acid is already rising. Together, these options address both the generation and clearance of uric acid. Probenecid is a uricosuric drug that increases uric acid excretion, but it depends on intact renal function. In tumor lysis syndrome, renal function is often compromised, and probenecid isn’t a reliable or preferred prophylactic choice. It’s more limited and not considered the primary strategy for TLS prevention. Dialysis isn’t a preventive measure; it’s used to manage established TLS with renal failure or severe metabolic derangements, not to prevent the syndrome from developing in the first place. So, the recommended approach is to use allopurinol or rasburicase for prevention, with probenecid reserved only when renal function is clearly good, and dialysis reserved for treating established TLS.
Question 1
Exam overview

About this Exam

Prepare with the Step 1 First Aid Rapid Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering commonly, region, lymph, node, and disorders. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

More details

Additional Information

Step 1 First Aid Rapid Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on commonly, region, lymph, node, and disorders. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

Quiz information

Frequently Asked Questions

The complete question count is available after full access is unlocked.
No fixed duration is currently configured for this quiz.
Question explanations are included where they are available in the quiz content, helping you review the reasoning after answering.
Yes. You can retake the practice test again as you continue studying during your available access period.
After your access is confirmed, you can continue into the complete practice exam from this quiz flow.
Unless explicitly stated otherwise, this page provides independent practice material for study and exam preparation and is not the official examination itself.
Keep studying

Related Questions