Question 1
In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis, which electrolyte requires careful monitoring due to risk of shift during insulin therapy?
Correct Answer:
Phosphate
Explanation:
During insulin therapy for diabetic ketoacidosis, electrolytes can shift between the blood and inside cells as glucose goes into cells. Phosphate is especially important because, in DKA, total body phosphate is often depleted from diuresis and poor intake, even if initial serum levels aren’t obviously low. Once insulin is started, phosphate moves into cells along with glucose, which can cause a notable drop in serum phosphate. This hypophosphatemia can impair energy production in muscles, including respiratory and cardiac muscles, and may lead to weakness, respiratory failure, or hemolysis if severe. Because of this risk, phosphate levels should be monitored during treatment and replaced if they fall to a low level or if there are signs of deficiency. While other electrolytes also shift during therapy, phosphate has a distinct and potentially serious impact on organ function when it drops in response to insulin.
Question 2
A 35-year-old man with retrosternal burning after meals; lifestyle modification recommended for GERD?
Correct Answer:
Avoid caffeine, chocolate, and carbonated beverages
Explanation:
In GERD, reducing reflux through lifestyle changes is a key strategy. Caffeine, chocolate, and carbonated beverages are known triggers for many people because they can relax the lower esophageal sphincter or increase gastric distension, making reflux more likely. Therefore, avoiding these items is a practical and broadly applicable modification to lessen retrosternal burning after meals. The other options are less reliable: foods like tomatoes, onions, and garlic can provoke symptoms in some individuals but aren’t universal triggers; sleeping in a prone position isn’t recommended and can worsen reflux; and delaying meals for six hours before bedtime isn’t standard practice ( most guidance suggests avoiding eating within a few hours of lying down).
Question 3
Which physical finding is commonly associated with hypothyroidism and may be observed as periorbital edema?
Correct Answer:
Periorbital edema
Explanation:
In hypothyroidism, a buildup of mucopolysaccharides in the dermis leads to non-pitting edema called myxedema. This often shows up around the eyes as periorbital puffiness, a classic physical finding in untreated or long-standing hypothyroidism. The edema is due to the interstitial accumulation of glycosaminoglycans, not fluid overload from vascular leakage, and it tends to be more prominent in the face and around the eyes. Exophthalmos, by contrast, is more typical of Graves disease (hyperthyroidism) and results from inflammation and enlargement of the extraocular muscles, pushing the eyes forward. Jaundice points to liver or hemolytic processes, not a thyroid-related edema. Erythema nodosum is a panniculitis presenting as tender nodules on the shins, unrelated to thyroid function. So the periorbital swelling described here fits hypothyroidism best because of the myxedematous facial edema pattern.
Question 4
In suspected temporal arteritis with headaches and jaw claudication, what is the first priority in management?
Correct Answer:
Oral corticosteroid treatment
Explanation:
Starting high-dose corticosteroids immediately is the top priority in suspected giant cell arteritis. The threat of irreversible vision loss from ophthalmic artery involvement means you cannot wait for biopsy or lab tests to confirm the diagnosis. Begin effective anti-inflammatory treatment at once—for most patients this is oral prednisone 40–60 mg daily (about 1 mg/kg/day). If there are signs of acute visual risk or actual vision changes, use intravenous methylprednisolone, such as 1 g daily for 3 days, then continue with an oral taper. After therapy is started, pursue diagnostic confirmation with temporal artery biopsy and supportive tests (ESR/CRP, imaging if available). Note that steroids can affect biopsy results if given too long before the procedure, but patient safety and vision protection take priority. If ocular symptoms are present, involve ophthalmology promptly, but treatment should not be delayed for that referral. Hospital admission is considered based on overall risk and comorbidities, not as the initial step in all cases.
Question 5
A 38-year-old woman with papillary thyroid cancer 2.3 cm with regional lymph node metastasis but no distant metastasis is staged as which stage?
Correct Answer:
Stage I
Explanation:
In papillary thyroid cancer, age is a major driver of stage. For younger patients, nodal involvement does not automatically upstage the disease as long as there is no distant metastasis. A 2.3 cm tumor places her in a mid T category, and regional lymph node metastasis (N1) with no distant spread (M0) would still be staged as an early, favorable stage in this age group. So, despite the regional metastasis, she remains Stage I because distant metastasis is absent and her age falls into the group where nodal disease does not by itself elevate the stage. If distant metastasis were present or if the patient were older, the stage would be higher.
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Prepare with the Rosh Internal Medicine Practice Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering year-old, management, risk, finding, and woman. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Rosh Internal Medicine Practice Exam

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