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Question 1
A 58-year-old male presents to a community hospital without a catheterization laboratory with 90 minutes of crushing substernal chest pain radiating to his left arm. The initial 12-lead ECG demonstrates 3 mm ST-segment elevation in leads V1 through V4. The estimated transfer time to the nearest percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) center is 150 minutes. Which reperfusion strategy is most appropriate according to clinical practice guidelines?
Correct Answer:
Immediate administration of IV fibrinolytic therapy within 30 minutes of medical contact
Question 2
A 64-year-old male with a history of anterior myocardial infarction has heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (LVEF 28%). He is currently receiving enalapril 10 mg twice daily and bisoprolol 5 mg daily. He remains in NYHA functional class II with an eGFR of 52 mL/min/1.73 m² and serum potassium of 4.3 mEq/L. Which pharmacological combination represents the most guideline-directed next step to reduce mortality?
Correct Answer:
Add a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (spironolactone) and an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin)
Question 3
A 52-year-old female presents for a routine check-up. Her seated blood pressure is 164/98 mmHg on two separate office visits. She has no history of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, or target organ damage. According to the Argentine Consensus on Arterial Hypertension (SAC/FAC/SAHA), what is the recommended initial management strategy?
Correct Answer:
Initiate combination therapy with two first-line antihypertensive agents from different classes (e.g., ACEi or ARB plus DHP calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic)
Question 4
A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a transient ischemic attack (TIA) two years ago is diagnosed with new-onset non-valvular atrial fibrillation. Transthoracic echocardiography reveals normal valvular structure and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 55%. What is the most appropriate antithrombotic strategy for stroke prevention?
Correct Answer:
Oral anticoagulation with a Direct Oral Anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban, rivaroxaban, or dabigatran
Question 5
A 72-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of productive cough with rust-colored sputum, right pleuritic chest pain, and progressive dyspnea. Physical examination reveals confusion (new onset), respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min, blood pressure of 86/54 mmHg, and crackles with bronchial breath sounds over the right lower hemithorax. Laboratory testing shows blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 28 mg/dL (urea > 7 mmol/L). According to the CURB-65 score, what is her risk stratification and appropriate setting of care?
Correct Answer:
CURB-65 score 4: Severe risk; hospital admission, preferably in an intensive care or intermediate care unit, with parenteral antibiotic therapy
Question 1
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Prepare with the Reválida Médica UBA Practice Questions - Examen General de Competencias Profesionales para Reválida de Título Médico Extranjero (Universidad de Buenos Aires) Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 100 questions covering year-old, presents, reveals, male, and abdominal. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Reválida Médica UBA Practice Questions - Examen General de Competencias Profesionales para Reválida de Título Médico Extranjero (Universidad de Buenos Aires) Exam

This practice set contains 100 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on year-old, presents, reveals, male, and abdominal. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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