Question 1
During mechanical ventilation, what tidal volume is generally recommended to minimize volutrauma in adults?
Correct Answer:
About 6 mL/kg PBW
Explanation:
Focusing on lung-protective ventilation, the tidal volume is set to about 6 mL per kilogram of predicted body weight. This sizing keeps the alveoli from overdistending with each breath, reducing volutrauma and ventilator-induced lung injury. Using predicted body weight, rather than actual weight, ensures the volume reflects lung size rather than overall body mass. Higher tidal volumes—around 8, 10, or 12 mL/kg—increase the risk of overinflation and injury. The evidence, notably the ARDSnet trial, supports around 6 mL/kg PBW, with attention to keeping plateau pressures generally at or below 30 cm H2O. If needed, PBW can be estimated from height (men: 50 + 0.91 × (height cm − 152.4); women: 45.5 + 0.91 × (height cm − 152.4)).
Question 2
An 80-year-old patient with pneumonia and a history of heart failure is on scheduled furosemide and IV antibiotics. What are they at the highest risk for?
Correct Answer:
Falls
Explanation:
The main idea is that diuretic therapy in an elderly patient can cause volume depletion and orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness, weakness, and an increased risk of falling. Furosemide removes fluid from the body, which can lower blood pressure, especially when standing or moving from bed to chair. In an 80-year-old with pneumonia and heart failure, sensitivity to fluid shifts is higher, and dehydration or electrolyte disturbances from diuresis (like low potassium or sodium) can worsen balance and coordination. While pneumonia could worsen or antibiotics could have side effects, the immediate safety concern here is fall risk from hemodynamic instability and weakness. So preventing falls—monitoring blood pressure in different positions, ensuring slow position changes, and assessing for dehydration signs—addresses the most pressing risk in this scenario.
Question 3
What care bundle elements reduce central line–associated bloodstream infections?
Correct Answer:
Aseptic hand hygiene, chlorhexidine skin antisepsis, maximal barrier precautions, proper line maintenance, and daily assessment for removal.
Explanation:
Prevention of central line–associated bloodstream infections relies on a bundle that combines several proven practices to stop infection at multiple points in the line’s life. The elements listed—aseptic hand hygiene, chlorhexidine skin antisepsis, maximal barrier precautions during insertion, proper line maintenance, and daily assessment for removal—work together to reduce infection risk. Aseptic hand hygiene lowers the chance of transferring pathogens to the catheter site; chlorhexidine for skin antisepsis decreases the skin’s microbial load where the line enters; maximal barrier precautions create a sterile field during insertion to prevent introduction of organisms; proper line maintenance includes meticulous dressing care, hub disinfection before access, and routine line care to keep the surface and connections clean; and daily assessment for removal ensures the line isn’t kept in place longer than needed, cutting down the dwell time that can allow infection to develop. Together, these practices address insertion, care, and timely removal—the key stages where infections can start. Sterile technique alone misses ongoing maintenance and timely removal, so it’s not sufficient by itself. Routine antibiotic prophylaxis for all patients is not recommended because it hasn’t shown consistent benefit and can promote resistance and other harms. No intervention would obviously fail to reduce infection risk.
Question 4
In inferior STEMI, what is the immediate action?
Correct Answer:
Activate cath lab for reperfusion
Explanation:
In a STEMI, the priority is to promptly restore blood flow to the affected coronary artery to minimize heart muscle damage. This is true for inferior STEMI as well—the location doesn’t change the need for urgent reperfusion. The fastest way to achieve this is to activate the cath lab for reperfusion, typically with PCI, so the artery can be opened as quickly as possible. If PCI isn’t available within an appropriate window, thrombolysis is the alternative. Aspirin and other medications help support the treatment, but they don’t by themselves save myocardium as effectively as immediate reperfusion. Oxygen is reserved for those with low oxygen saturation, and nitrates are used with caution—especially in inferior MI with possible right ventricular involvement, where hypotension can worsen with nitrates. The key action is mobilizing the team for urgent reperfusion.
Question 5
Which statement best describes how heparin therapy is typically managed in a hospital setting?
Correct Answer:
It is typically titrated by unit/hour.
Explanation:
IV heparin is managed by adjusting the infusion rate in units per hour to reach and maintain a targeted level of anticoagulation. This continuous titration is guided by frequent lab monitoring (such as aPTT or anti-Xa) because patient response to heparin varies and can change with illness, organ function, or drug interactions. This approach provides precise, patient-specific control of anticoagulation and helps balance the risk of clotting with bleeding. Bolus-only use is not the standard practice, and heparin can interact with other anticoagulants or antiplatelet therapies and requires monitoring for potential complications like bleeding or HIT.
Question 1
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Prepare with the Relias Medical Surgical Telemetry RN A Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering patient, risk, reduce, acute, and pulmonary. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Relias Medical Surgical Telemetry RN A Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on patient, risk, reduce, acute, and pulmonary. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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