Question 1
In dietary management of high triglycerides, which statement best describes OM3 and OM6?
Correct Answer:
OM3 and OM6 are both beneficial, but excessive OM6 relative to OM3 can be harmful
Explanation:
In managing high triglycerides, the balance between omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids is important. Omega-3s (EPA and DHA) directly lower triglycerides by reducing hepatic production and secretion of VLDL, which translates to lower fasting triglyceride levels. Omega-6s are essential, but when their intake is excessive relative to omega-3, it can promote a more pro-inflammatory state and may blunt the triglyceride-lowering benefits of omega-3s. So the best statement is that omega-3s and omega-6s both matter, but having too much omega-6 relative to omega-3 can be harmful—focus on increasing omega-3 intake and maintaining a balanced, not excess, omega-6 intake.
Question 2
Which measurement BEST predicts disease severity in RSV infection?
Correct Answer:
Pulse Ox
Explanation:
Oxygenation status measured by pulse oximetry best predicts severity of RSV infection. In infants and young children with bronchiolitis, the main danger is hypoxemia from airway inflammation and obstruction. Pulse oximetry provides a real-time, noninvasive readout of how well the lungs are exchanging oxygen, which directly reflects how severely the disease is affecting gas exchange and helps guide need for supplemental oxygen or hospital care. Chest X-ray findings can vary and do not consistently track illness severity—some with significant symptoms may have minimal radiographic abnormalities, while others with obvious X-ray changes may be clinically mild. White blood cell count is a nonspecific marker of infection and does not indicate the degree of respiratory compromise. Blood pH indicates acid-base status but shifts late in the course and does not reliably predict current severity or need for intervention in RSV bronchiolitis.
Question 3
Inferior wall MI is most commonly caused by occlusion of which artery?
Correct Answer:
Right coronary artery
Explanation:
The main idea is that the inferior wall of the left ventricle is supplied mainly by the posterior descending artery, which in the vast majority of people arises from the right coronary artery. When the right coronary artery becomes occluded, the posterior descending artery is affected, leading to an inferior wall myocardial infarction. In most people with right-dominant circulation, this is the typical pattern. There is a minority with left-dominant circulation where the posterior descending artery comes from the left circumflex, so occlusion of that branch could cause an inferior MI there, but the most common cause remains occlusion of the right coronary artery. Clinically, inferior MIs often present with ST elevations in leads II, III, and aVF and can be associated with bradycardia or AV nodal involvement due to RCA supply to the AV node.
Question 4
Which test is the gold standard to confirm a diagnosis of syphilis?
Correct Answer:
FTA-ABS
Explanation:
The key idea is that confirming a syphilis infection relies on a test that detects antibodies specific to Treponema pallidum, not just any inflammatory or non-specific antibodies. Non-treponemal tests like RPR and VDRL are useful for screening and for tracking response to therapy because their titers rise with active infection and fall after treatment. However, they can yield false positives and don’t prove infection with Treponema pallidum on their own. A treponemal test, such as FTA-ABS, directly detects antibodies against the organism itself. It has very high specificity for Treponema pallidum, so a positive treponemal test confirms infection rather than merely indicating a reaction that could occur with other conditions. Because these antibodies can remain positive for life, treponemal tests are ideal for confirming whether someone has been infected, even if screening tests were equivocal or if the patient has had prior therapy. NAATs (nucleic acid amplification tests) aren’t the standard confirmatory test for systemic syphilis; they’re more often used in specific situations, such as testing lesion material, and don’t replace a treponemal confirmatory test for typical diagnostic workups. So, the test that serves as the gold standard for confirming syphilis is the treponemal-specific assay, like FTA-ABS.
Question 5
In an acute presentation suggestive of Crohn disease, which imaging test is most appropriate to start?
Correct Answer:
KUB
Explanation:
In an acute presentation where Crohn disease is suspected, the priority is to rapidly assess for potentially life-threatening complications and stabilize the patient. A plain abdominal radiograph (KUB) is the best starting imaging because it quickly evaluates for obstruction, dilated bowel loops, and free air from perforation. These findings directly guide urgent management and the need for further testing. A CT scan of the abdomen provides detailed information about the extent and complications of Crohn disease (such as fistulas, abscesses, and bowel wall thickening), but it’s typically used after initial stabilization or when obstruction or perforation isn’t evident on plain X-rays. It also involves more radiation and contrast exposure, making it a step after the initial plain film. Barium enema is less favorable in this acute context because it can worsen obstruction and is less informative for small bowel Crohn’s disease, which is often the focus in Crohn’s. Sigmoidoscopy examines mucosa of the distal colon but does not assess the small bowel well and is not a first-line imaging in an acute suspected Crohn’s presentation.
Question 1
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