Question 1
What should EMS personnel do within 2 minutes of arrival at a hospital?
Correct Answer:
Interface with the charge nurse or designee to give a verbal report.
Explanation:
The key idea is to ensure a smooth, immediate handoff from EMS to hospital staff so the patient can be received without delay. Within two minutes of arriving, the EMS team should interface with the ED charge nurse or a designee to deliver a concise verbal report. The charge nurse is the designated point person for incoming patients and can quickly flag priorities, assign a bed or room, and alert the appropriate ED teams to expect the patient. A structured verbal handoff helps prevent information gaps and accelerates the initiation of appropriate care, including needed diagnostics, treatments, and monitoring. Providing orders to an ED physician right away is not typically the fastest or most reliable path in the initial handoff, since the ED team needs to triage and prepare for the incoming patient first. Notifying security to clear the area and filling out transfer forms before seeing the patient do not address the immediate need for a timely, accurate report to the team that will receive and care for the patient.
Question 2
What is deep sedation?
Correct Answer:
A drug-induced depression of consciousness where patients cannot be easily aroused but respond to repeated or painful stimulation
Explanation:
Deep sedation is a drug-induced depression of consciousness in which the patient is not easily aroused but can respond to repeated or painful stimulation. This level sits between moderate sedation, where a patient remains responsive to verbal or light tactile stimulation and maintains airway reflexes, and general anesthesia, where the patient is unresponsive and airway support is typically required. In deep sedation, spontaneous breathing may become inadequate, and the patient often requires closer airway management and monitoring. The other descriptions describe lighter states of sedation or no sedation at all—being fully awake and alert, responding normally to gentle touch, or having no sedation—so they do not fit the defined depth of deep sedation.
Question 3
What is the dosage of Amiodarone for persistent VF/pVT?
Correct Answer:
300 mg IV/IO, consider repeat 150 mg once
Explanation:
In persistent VF or pulseless VT, amiodarone is used as an antiarrhythmic to improve the chance of returning a perfusing rhythm when shocks alone aren’t enough. The recommended approach is to give a loading dose of 300 mg IV or IO, and if the rhythm remains VT/VF or recurs after defibrillation, administer an additional 150 mg IV or IO. This keeps the total dose within about 450 mg during the arrest. A single larger dose or weight-based dosing isn’t the standard in this scenario, and a 150 mg first dose or a 1 mg/kg dose doesn’t align with the ACLS protocol for this situation.
Question 4
If ST elevation is noted in inferior leads, what additional step should be taken?
Correct Answer:
Obtain V4R lead
Explanation:
When inferior-STEMI is suspected, check for right ventricular involvement because it significantly changes treatment. Right ventricular infarction often accompanies an inferior wall MI from RCA occlusion, and detecting it early guides hemodynamic management. Obtaining a right‑sided ECG lead, especially V4R, can reveal ST elevation there if the RV is involved. A positive V4R confirms RV infarction, which means nitrates should be avoided since they reduce preload and can cause dangerous hypotension in RV infarct; treatment then focuses on maintaining preload (often with IV fluids) while continuing urgent reperfusion. CT angiography would not be the immediate step in acute STEMI care and could delay reperfusion. Administering aspirin is important in STEMI, but it doesn’t specifically address whether the RV is involved. Administering nitroglycerin is risky if there is RV infarction, because it can worsen preload-dependent hemodynamics. Identifying RV involvement with the V4R lead is the best next action to tailor therapy.
Question 5
Which documentation establishes the physician on scene is authorized to supervise on-site care?
Correct Answer:
Documentation of their status as a physician (copy of medical license)
Explanation:
Licensure proves a physician is legally allowed to practice medicine and supervise patient care on site. A copy of the physician’s medical license shows they are currently licensed by the state medical board, which is the official credential authorizing them to supervise care in the field. A personal business card is informal and doesn’t verify licensure or supervisory authority. A hospital badge might indicate where the physician works but does not confirm they are licensed to supervise. A notarized letter from a hospital administrator could grant permission, but it isn’t the physician’s official credential and doesn’t independently prove licensure.
Question 1
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Prepare with the OFD Protocols Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering amiodarone, scene, personnel, and protocols. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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OFD Protocols Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on amiodarone, scene, personnel, and protocols. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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