Question 1
What is the purpose of an enteral or nasogastric tube in postoperative care?
Correct Answer:
Gastric decompression, prevention of aspiration, and monitoring of GI function
Explanation:
After surgery, the stomach often contains secretions and gas and the bowel’s movements are slowed. An enteral or nasogastric tube helps by decompressing the stomach, which reduces distention and nausea and lowers the risk of aspiration if regurgitation occurs. It also provides a way to monitor the GI tract’s function through the drainage that comes out—the amount, color, and consistency can give clues about how well the stomach and intestines are healing and returning to normal. This option is best because it covers the primary postoperative roles: keeping the stomach empty to prevent complications, protecting the airway, and giving direct information about GI function. In contrast, delivering oxygen is not a function of an NG tube, restricting GI function is not the goal of decompression, and providing nutrition only is incomplete since the tube’s main postoperative purposes are decompression and airway protection, with monitoring as an added benefit.
Question 2
How should a MAR discrepancy be handled?
Correct Answer:
Investigate, verify, document resolution, and inform the provider if needed
Explanation:
Discrepancies in the medication administration record are treated as a safety issue that requires careful verification. When you notice a mismatch, you don’t proceed with the medication. Instead, you first compare the MAR with the patient’s current orders and with the label on the medication, confirming the correct patient, drug, dose, route, and time. If anything doesn’t align, you pause administration and investigate—check the chart, the pharmacy system, and any recent changes, and consult the prescribing clinician or nurse supervisor as needed. Once you determine the correct information, you document the discrepancy, the steps you took, and the final resolution, and you update the MAR accordingly. If the order appears wrong or unclear, you obtain a corrected order before administering. The provider is informed as part of the safety process to ensure the MAR and the order remain consistent. Choosing to ignore the discrepancy, change the MAR without verification, or notify the patient first does not support safe practice.
Question 3
Which ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?
Correct Answer:
Tall peaked T waves, widening of QRS, and potentially sine wave pattern.
Explanation:
When potassium rises, the heart’s electrical activity changes in a characteristic progression. Early on, you see tall, peaked T waves because ventricular myocytes repolarize more quickly. As potassium increases further, conduction slows, so the PR interval lengthens and the QRS complex widens. If hyperkalemia becomes severe, the QRS widening can progress to a sine-wave pattern, signaling a high risk of deadly arrhythmias. This sequence makes tall peaked T waves with widening of the QRS, and possibly a sine-wave pattern, the hallmark ECG finding of hyperkalemia. Other patterns described—such as ST depression with U waves, mere inverted T SAMPLEwaves, or a shortened QT without the broader progression—do not align with the typical hyperkalemic changes.
Question 4
For a patient with MRSA infection, which precautions are required to prevent transmission?
Correct Answer:
Contact precautions (gloves and gown; dedicated equipment)
Explanation:
MRSA spreads mainly by direct contact with infected skin or contaminated surfaces, so preventing transmission relies on contact precautions. This means wearing gloves and a gown whenever entering the patient’s room or performing patient-care activities and using dedicated, nonshared equipment to avoid cross-contamination. Hand hygiene before and after care is essential to stop any transfer, and placing the patient in a private room (or cohorting with the same infection if needed) helps contain spread. Standard precautions are used for all patients, but MRSA requires an added layer of protection because its primary transmission route is contact. Droplet precautions address spreading through respiratory droplets, and airborne precautions address tiny particles that linger in the air; neither is the main route for MRSA, so those precautions aren’t routinely required for MRSA unless another infection requiring them is present.
Question 5
During the primary survey, exposure refers to which action?
Correct Answer:
Fully exposing the patient to assess for injuries
Explanation:
Exposure in the primary survey means removing clothing as needed so you can inspect the entire body for injuries and signs of trauma. This quick, full-body inspection is essential because injuries aren’t always obvious through clothing, and you need to identify all life-threatening issues right away. While you do this, you should still take steps to keep the patient warm and preserve dignity once the necessary assessment is done. Fully covering the patient all the time would hide injuries, exposing only the injured area could miss problems elsewhere, and skipping exposure altogether would leave hidden injuries undiscovered.
Question 1
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Prepare with the Nursing Transition to Practice Test 2 Practice practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering patient, action, enteral, nursing, and transition. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Nursing Transition to Practice Test 2 Practice

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on patient, action, enteral, nursing, and transition. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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