Question 1
A patient in therapy shows grip strength variation of approximately 25% in a test-retest after four weeks. What is the MOST plausible interpretation?
Correct Answer:
The patient is not exerting maximal effort
Explanation:
When grip strength is measured over sessions, the values should be similar if the person is giving a true maximal effort and no real change has occurred. A variation as large as 25% across a four-week interval is too big to reflect a real change in muscle capacity and more likely points to inconsistent effort during testing. Grip strength testing relies on a maximal voluntary contraction; if a person isn’t pushing maximally, the results will be lower and less reproducible from one session to the next, producing a large swing like this. Fatigue or a temporary pain flare could affect performance, but they tend to produce more uniform effects within a single testing session or follow a more predictable pattern, and an injury flare would usually show a consistent direction of change rather than a random large fluctuation. So the most plausible interpretation is that maximal effort wasn’t consistently achieved across the test-retest sessions. To improve reliability, ensure standardized testing conditions, clear encouragement, and confirm maximal effort with proper cues.
Question 2
In a patient with sciatica due to a posterior derangement of the L5 disk who centralizes during a prone press-up, the most appropriate next step is to:
Correct Answer:
Continue to provide feedback regarding symptom changes
Explanation:
Centralization with an extension-based maneuver shows the direction of loading that reduces nerve-root symptoms. The best next step is to continue the same extension-focused exercise and use ongoing symptom feedback to guide progression. By maintaining the extension direction and gradually increasing tolerance (more reps, longer holds, or greater load as symptoms allow), you capitalize on the favorable response. Reverting to less provocative positions or stopping extension would miss the opportunity to drive further improvement.
Question 3
A three-year-old patient with easy bruising and a lifelong history of pathologic fractures due to a genetic condition affecting collagen synthesis is MOST likely to be diagnosed with which condition?
Correct Answer:
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Explanation:
Osteogenesis imperfecta is the result of a genetic defect in type I collagen synthesis, the main organic matrix of bone. When collagen is abnormal, the bone matrix is weak, so bones fracture easily with minimal or no trauma, producing the lifelong fractures described. Easy bruising also fits, since collagen is important in connective tissues and blood vessel walls, making them more fragile. This combination in a young child strongly suggests a collagen-related bone fragility disorder rather than issues of mineralization or bone turnover alone. Pediatric osteoporosis involves low bone mass but isn’t driven by a primary collagen defect. Osteomalacia is due to defective mineralization from vitamin D deficiency, leading to rickets-like changes rather than a dominant SAMPLEcollagen issue. Osteopetrosis features overly dense bones from osteoclast dysfunction, not a collagen synthesis problem.
Question 4
During Canalith Repositioning Therapy, The Maneuver Begins In Which Position to Provoke Vertigo?
Correct Answer:
Dix-Hallpike Position
Explanation:
The starting step of Canalith Repositioning Therapy is to provoke vertigo by placing the patient in the Dix-Hallpike provocative position. This specific setup uses gravity to move the canaliths within the posterior semicircular canal, which is the canal most commonly involved in BPPV. Begin seated with the head turned toward the affected side, then rapidly lower the patient into a supine position with the head extended about 20 degrees. In this orientation, the posterior canal is aligned with gravity, causing the otoconia to shift and trigger the characteristic vertigo and nystagmus that confirm canal involvement and set up the subsequent steps of the maneuver. Other positions do not optimally provoke the posterior canal in the same way and are not used to start the therapy.
Question 5
A patient has no sensation below the L2 dermatome after a recent motor vehicle accident. What is the MOST likely rationale for this finding?
Correct Answer:
The patient has a complete transection of the spinal cord
Explanation:
When sensory loss extends below a single spinal level across all modalities, it points to a complete transection of the spinal cord at that level. Here, no sensation is felt below the L2 dermatome, indicating that all sensory pathways—pain, temperature, vibration, proprioception, and touch—are interrupted below the level of injury, and motor pathways to the legs are typically affected as well. Other patterns don’t fit as well: a dorsal column lesion would spare pain and temperature and mainly disrupt fine touch and proprioception; a hemisection would cause a mix of ipsilateral motor/proprioceptive loss with contralateral pain/temperature loss; a spinothalamic tract lesion would mainly disrupt pain and temperature, with other modalities largely preserved on the same side. The widespread loss below L2 best matches a complete spinal cord transection at or around that level.
Question 1
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Prepare with the NPTE Scorebuilders OA Exam 1 Practice practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering patient, therapy, condition, object, and despite. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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NPTE Scorebuilders OA Exam 1 Practice

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on patient, therapy, condition, object, and despite. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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