Question 1
At 12-15 months, which vaccines are typically started?
Correct Answer:
MMR and Varicella.
Explanation:
Starting around 12 to 15 months, two vaccines are commonly given for the first time: measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) and varicella (chickenpox). These are live attenuated vaccines, and they’re timed to follow the earlier infancy vaccines so that immunity to these viruses can develop after the child is past one year old. The usual immune plan already includes vaccines given in the first year—DTaP, Hib, PCV, Hep B, polio (IPV), and rotavirus—with MMR and varicella introduced at this 12–15 month window. HPV isn’t started until around ages 11–12, and the polio vaccine is part of the early primary series rather than a first-time dose at this age. DTaP is typically completed in infancy with a booster around 15–18 months, not started anew at 12–15 months.
Question 2
For chronic kidney disease with hyperphosphatemia, when should phosphate binders be taken?
Correct Answer:
With meals
Explanation:
Phosphate binders must be taken with meals because they work in the gut to trap the phosphate that's in the food you eat. They bind dietary phosphate during digestion, forming an insoluble complex that is excreted in stool. If you take the binder on an empty stomach, there’s little or no dietary phosphate present to bind, so the medication won’t effectively reduce serum phosphate. Timing with meals ensures the binder is present exactly when phosphate from the meal is in the gut, making the treatment effective. This is why taking with meals is essential, rather than after exercise or only in the morning.
Question 3
Which laboratory change is most suggestive of renal allograft rejection?
Correct Answer:
Dehydration with low urine volume
Explanation:
When a renal allograft is rejected, the transplanted kidney’s ability to filter blood declines, so the glomerular filtration rate drops. That means waste products build up in the blood, with creatinine rising, and the kidney produces less urine, leading to oliguria. So the combination of a rising serum creatinine with decreased urine output is the most telling sign of graft rejection. Other patterns can occur for different reasons—decreasing creatinine suggests improving function, dehydration can lower urine output without indicating rejection, and a high potassium level with a normal creatinine points to other issues—so they’re not as specific to rejection. In clinical practice, rising creatinine over time in a transplant patient triggers evaluation for rejection and possible changes in immunosuppressive therapy, sometimes with a biopsy to confirm.
Question 4
A hospitalized patient with agitation and IV lines is at risk for pulling lines. What is the first action the nurse should take to ensure safety?
Correct Answer:
Assess reversible causes and implement safety measures.
Explanation:
When a hospitalized patient is agitated and at risk for pulling lines, the first priority is to identify reversible causes and put safety measures in place. Agitation can stem from many correctable factors such as pain, hypoxia or hypoxemia, hypoglycemia, dehydration or electrolyte imbalances, delirium, infection, withdrawal, or side effects of medications. Quickly assessing these possibilities (checking vital signs and oxygenation, reviewing meds, evaluating pain, mental status, and potential withdrawal) helps you address the underlying problem rather than just masking the symptoms. Alongside this assessment, implement safety measures to protect the patient and the IV lines. This includes securing lines and tubing, keeping the patient within sight or near the nurse’s station, using bed alarms or additional monitoring, keeping the environment calm and low-stimulation, and arranging for closer observation or a sitter if needed. Use a reassuring, nonthreatening approach to de-escalate, and involve the patient in explanations of what you’re doing to reduce agitation. Restraints or sedatives are not first-line actions. Restraints require specific orders and policy compliance and should be considered only after less restrictive measures fail or immediate danger persists. Sedation without evaluating underlying causes can worsen outcomes by masking a treatable problem or causing respiratory or cardiorespiratory compromise. So, the best initial step is to assess reversible causes and implement safety measures to prevent harm while you determine the appropriate treatment.
Question 5
A patient on penicillin develops hives and facial swelling. What is the immediate action?
Correct Answer:
Stop penicillin; assess for anaphylaxis; administer epinephrine if signs of anaphylaxis; summon help.
Explanation:
Recognizing a possible anaphylactic reaction to penicillin and acting immediately is the key idea here. When hives and facial swelling appear after antibiotic exposure, there’s a real risk of progression to airway obstruction and shock, so the first steps are to stop the offending drug and assess the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation. If there are signs of anaphylaxis, epinephrine is the essential treatment and should be given right away—typically an intramuscular injection into the mid-outer thigh (0.3–0.5 mg of a 1:1000 solution for adults), with the dose repeatable every 5–15 minutes as needed. While this is being done, summon help and arrange for emergency care. Keep the patient in a position that supports breathing (usually supine with legs elevated unless there is severe breathing difficulty), provide oxygen if available, and continuously monitor vital signs. Do not continue penicillin or switch to another antibiotic without allergy assessment, and antihistamines alone do not treat anaphylaxis adequately. After stability is achieved, document the reaction, advise avoidance of penicillin-family drugs, and consider formal allergy testing.
Question 1
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Prepare with the NCLEX RNSG-2130 Licensure Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering patient, lines, action, nclex, and rnsg. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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NCLEX RNSG-2130 Licensure Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on patient, lines, action, nclex, and rnsg. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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