Question 1
Progesterone therapy in amenorrheic patients is given and withdrawn. If menses does NOT occur after withdrawal, then the most likely cause is _______.
Correct Answer:
Structural abnormality, uterus abnormality, or estrogen deficiency
Explanation:
The key idea is the progesterone (progestin) withdrawal test used to evaluate estrogen status and endometrial integrity. If progesterone is given and a withdrawal bleed occurs after stopping it, the endometrium was adequately primed by estrogen and the amenorrhea is due to anovulation. If there is no withdrawal bleed, the endometrium didn’t proliferate, which points to insufficient estrogen or a uterine/outflow tract problem that prevents shedding. Therefore, the most likely cause is a situation where either estrogen deficiency or a structural/uterine abnormality is preventing the bleed. Options that reflect estrogen deficiency or uterine/structural issues fit best, whereas pregnancy or pure ovarian failure without considering the estrogen/uterine context would not as directly explain a lack of withdrawal bleed in this scenario.
Question 2
Arrest of labor should be managed with C-section.
Correct Answer:
False
Explanation:
Arrest of labor is a stall in progress, not an automatic reason to perform a cesarean. The management hinges on what is causing the stall and the current labor conditions. First, assess contractions: if they’re inadequate, the next step is to augment with oxytocin to try to restore progress. If contractions are adequate and there is true arrest, cesarean becomes more likely, but it isn’t the only option. If the baby’s condition is reassuring and the head is low with the cervix fully dilated, an instrumental vaginal delivery (forceps or vacuum) can be attempted. Only when efforts to progress fail or fetal status is nonreassuring is cesarean typically indicated.
Question 3
Protraction of labor during active labor should be managed initially with C-section.
Correct Answer:
False
Explanation:
Protraction in the active phase means cervical dilation is progressing more slowly than expected despite regular contractions. The best first step is to optimize labor, often by augmenting contractions with IV oxytocin and addressing reversible factors such as hydration, analgesia, fatigue, and maternal position. Cesarean delivery is not the initial management for protraction. It becomes appropriate if, after adequate augmentation and optimization, the labor still does not progress (arrests) or if there is nonreassuring fetal status or other contraindications to vaginal delivery. So the initial approach is to augment labor rather than proceed straight to a cesarean.
Question 4
Which condition describes abnormal placental attachment to the myometrium?
Correct Answer:
Placenta accreta
Explanation:
Abnormal placental attachment to the myometrium occurs when placental villi attach directly to the muscular wall of the uterus rather than being anchored in the decidua basalis. This is placenta accreta. It can exist on a spectrum where the villi invade the myometrium (increta) or even through it to surrounding organs (percreta) in more severe cases. The key idea is abnormal adhesion to the myometrium rather than proper separation at delivery, which can lead to heavy postpartum bleeding and retained placenta. Placenta previa describes a placenta implanted over the cervical opening, which can cause painless bleeding in pregnancy. Placental abruption is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Vasa previa involves fetal blood vessels crossing the cervix, posing risk of fetal hemorrhage during rupture of membranes.
Question 5
First-line therapy for ulcerative colitis?
Correct Answer:
Mesalamine
Explanation:
Starting therapy for mild to moderate ulcerative colitis is typically with a 5-aminosalicylic acid agent, specifically mesalamine, because it directly reduces mucosal inflammation in the colon with a strong safety profile and can be used for maintenance to prevent relapse. Mesalamine acts locally in the colon, limiting systemic effects while effectively controlling mild-to-moderate disease activity. Prednisone is reserved for induction of remission during flares or when mesalamine alone isn’t enough, but it carries systemic side effects that make it unsuitable as a first-line long-term option. Azathioprine is an immunomodulator used mainly as a steroid-sparing agent or for maintenance in steroid-dependent or refractory disease, and it has a slower onset. Infliximab is a biologic used for moderate-to-severe disease or refractory cases after conventional therapy fails, and it’s not a first-line choice due to cost, infection risk, and need for monitoring.
Question 1
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Prepare with the NBME Form 9 Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering labor, therapy, managed, c-section, and patient. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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NBME Form 9 Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on labor, therapy, managed, c-section, and patient. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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