Question 1
What is the best approach when a patient with recent trauma requests additional opioid prescriptions?
Correct Answer:
Determine which drugs have been prescribed for the patient in the past
Explanation:
When a patient with recent trauma asks for more opioids, the most important first step is to determine which drugs have been prescribed for the patient in the past. This history reveals prior opioid exposure, patterns of use, and potential risk factors such as tolerance, dependence, or misuse. It helps you gauge how aggressive a plan would be, whether there are red flags like frequent refills or high doses, and what alternatives might be safer. Checking past prescriptions also often involves reviewing the prescribed medications already in the patient’s chart and, when available, data from a prescription monitoring program to get a complete picture. While reviewing the medical record is helpful, pinpointing the patient’s past opioid prescriptions specifically targets the key risk information needed to guide safer decisions. Discussing nonpharmacologic options is an important part of multimodal pain management, but it doesn’t directly address the immediate risk assessment involved with requests for more opioids. Referral to psychiatry is not routinely indicated unless there are signs of an opioid use disorder or other complex psychiatric issues.
Question 2
A 28-year-old woman presents with a red perianal area, itching, pain during defecation, constipation, and bright red blood on wiping. Most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer:
External hemorrhoids
Explanation:
External hemorrhoids arise from dilation of the veins around the anus, producing a visible red, itchy perianal area that can be painful with defecation. Straining from constipation increases venous pressure and promotes these dilated veins, so bleeding often appears as bright red on wiping. Internal hemorrhoids, while they can bleed, are typically painless because they are above the dentate line and lack somatic pain fibers. Anal fissures cause sharp pain during stool passage and usually present with a tear in the anoderm and blood on the stool rather than a tender, visible perianal lump. A perianal abscess would present with a tender, swollen area and often fever. Therefore, the presentation most closely matches external hemorrhoids.
Question 3
An adult with fever, cough, myalgia, and headache could have been prevented by which vaccine?
Correct Answer:
Influenza vaccine
Explanation:
Protecting against influenza is the key idea here. The flu vaccine targets seasonal influenza, which in adults typically presents with fever, cough, myalgias, and headaches. Getting the influenza vaccine reduces the risk of contracting influenza and its respiratory symptoms, making it the best match for this presentation. The pneumococcal vaccine prevents pneumococcal pneumonia and other invasive pneumococcal diseases, not the flu-like syndrome described. The measles vaccine prevents measles, which starts with fever, cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis followed by a rash, not the influenza picture. The hepatitis B vaccine prevents hepatitis B, a liver infection, not respiratory symptoms. So the influenza vaccine best explains prevention of this illness. (Note: vaccines reduce risk but don’t guarantee protection.)
Question 4
Left atrial myxoma most commonly presents with which of the following clinical features?
Correct Answer:
Embolic phenomena and obstructive symptoms
Explanation:
A left atrial myxoma is typically a mobile, friable mass that sits near the mitral valve. Because it can intermittently prolapse into the mitral orifice during diastole, it often causes obstruction to left ventricular filling, producing symptoms that mimic mitral stenosis—dyspnea, orthopnea, and sometimes syncope or other signs of left-sided heart failure. At the same time, its friable surface can shed tumor fragments into the systemic circulation, leading to embolic phenomena such as transient ischemic attacks or strokes, and emboli to kidneys, spleen, or limbs. So the combination of embolic events with obstructive symptoms best captures the classic presentation. Other features like severe anemia or renal failure aren’t typical primary presentations, and pulmonary hypertension isn’t the hallmark since this mass tends to cause systemic rather than pulmonary emboli.
Question 5
A 12-year-old from central Africa has severe abdominal pain and hematemesis; hepatosplenomegaly and ascites; stool shows parasite eggs. Which drug would treat this infection?
Correct Answer:
Praziquantel
Explanation:
Think about schistosomiasis presenting with liver and spleen involvement in someone from Africa. The combination of abdominal pain, hepatosplenomegaly, ascites, and eggs seen in stool points to infection with a Schistosoma species that causes intestinal disease (such as Schistosoma mansoni). The drug of choice for schistosomiasis is praziquantel. It works by increasing the parasite’s cell membrane permeability to calcium, which leads to spastic paralysis and death of the adult worms in the mesenteric and portal venous systems. Once the adults are killed, egg production drops, reducing ongoing inflammation and portal hypertension and improving clinical symptoms. Other drugs listed target different parasites (nematodes or anaerobic protozoa) and are not as effective against Schistosoma, so praziquantel is the best choice here.
Question 1
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Prepare with the NBME Form 16 Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering presents, year-old, pain, adult, and risk. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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NBME Form 16 Practice Test

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