Question 1
Which statement about NSAIDs in gout management is true?
Correct Answer:
They are used for acute gout attacks
Explanation:
NSAIDs are used to treat acute gout attacks because they rapidly reduce inflammation and pain caused by urate crystal–induced joint inflammation. They do this by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes, which lowers prostaglandin production and dampens the inflammatory response in the affected joint. They provide quick relief during an acute flare, which is the primary reason they’re chosen in this setting. They do not lower serum uric acid levels, so they’re not used for chronic management of gout or as urate-lowering therapy. Chronic control focuses on medications like allopurinol or febuxostat to reduce uric acid, with NSAIDs reserved for short-term use during acute flares (and sometimes briefly for flare prophylaxis when starting urate-lowering therapy).
Question 2
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia involving IgG corresponds to which hypersensitivity type?
Correct Answer:
Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:
This question tests recognizing how antibody-mediated destruction of cells fits into hypersensitivity types. When IgG is directed against antigens on the surface of red blood cells, the immune response causes cytotoxic destruction of those cells. This is the hallmark of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction. Mechanistically, IgG binding to RBC surface proteins marks the cells for attack by effector systems. The spleen’s macrophages can recognize the Fc portion of IgG-coated red cells and phagocytose them (opsonization), leading to extravascular hemolysis. Complement activation can also occur, contributing to cell lysis, sometimes within blood vessels (intravascular hemolysis). The key point is that the immune attack targets cell-surface antigens with antibodies, rather than forming soluble immune complexes or involving T-cell–mediated delayed responses. In contrast, Type I involves IgE-mediated allergic reactions, Type III involves immune complex deposition causing tissue injury, and Type IV is a T-cell–mediated delayed-type reaction. Since the destruction is driven by antibodies binding to cell surfaces and triggering effector mechanisms, it fits Type II hypersensitivity.
Question 3
Elevated WBC with metamyelocytes and myelocytes are seen. Which diagnosis is most likely?
Correct Answer:
Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
Explanation:
A broad spectrum of granulocytic precursors in the blood, including metamyelocytes and myelocytes, points to a myeloproliferative process driving ongoing granulopoiesis. The classic condition with this pattern is chronic myelogenous leukemia, in which the BCR-ABL fusion protein causes unchecked production of granulocytes, leading to very high white blood cell counts and a left-shift that includes metamyelocytes and myelocytes in the peripheral smear. In contrast, acute myeloid or acute lymphoblastic leukemias would typically show a high percentage of blasts rather than a wide range of maturing granulocytes. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia involves mature lymphocytes, not granulocytic precursors. A leukemoid reaction can show left-shifted neutrophils too, but it usually lacks the sustained, broad spectrum of granulocytic maturation and basophilia seen in CML, and it resolves with treatment of the underlying condition. Testing for the Philadelphia chromosome or BCR-ABL fusion can confirm CML.
Question 4
An 82-year-old with a cauliflower-like lesion between the vagina and rectum; likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer:
Vulvar Carcinoma (Squamous Cell)
Explanation:
A cauliflower-like, exophytic mass arising from the external genital area in an elderly woman points to vulvar squamous cell carcinoma. The space between the vagina and rectum is the vulvar region, and vulvar cancers classically present as raised, warty (cauliflower-like) lesions that may be pruritic or bleed. This differentiates it from anal cancer (which involves the anal canal itself), cervical cancer (arises from the cervix inside the uterus), or vaginal sarcoma (originating in the vaginal wall). Among vulvar malignancies, squamous cell carcinoma is by far the most common in postmenopausal women, often linked to HPV or chronic inflammatory dermatoses. Diagnosis is confirmed by biopsy.
Question 5
Definitive treatment of Hereditary Spherocytosis?
Correct Answer:
Splenectomy
Explanation:
Hereditary spherocytosis is caused by defects in red cell membrane proteins that make red cells spherical and prone to being destroyed by the spleen. The spleen is the main site where these rigid spherocytes are sequestered and removed, so removing the spleen markedly decreases ongoing hemolysis and often corrects the anemia and jaundice. That is why splenectomy is considered the definitive treatment. Cholecystectomy may be needed if pigment gallstones develop from chronic hemolysis, but it does not address the underlying hemolysis. Bone marrow transplant isn’t used for this condition, and IVIG is not indicated for hereditary spherocytosis. After splenectomy, there’s an increased risk of infection from encapsulated organisms, so appropriate vaccination and precautions are important.
Question 1
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Prepare with the NBME Form 13 Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering elevated, diagnosis, treatment, pityriasis, and rosea. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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NBME Form 13 Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on elevated, diagnosis, treatment, pityriasis, and rosea. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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