Question 1
An obese man presents with regurgitation of undigested food, gurgling sounds on swallowing, and halitosis. Which esophageal condition best fits this presentation?
Correct Answer:
Zenker diverticulum
Explanation:
Regurgitation of undigested food with gurgling sounds on swallowing points to a pouch forming in the pharyngoesophageal region. Zenker diverticulum is a pulsion diverticulum that mucosa herniates through Killian’s dehiscence above the upper esophageal sphincter. Food can get trapped in this pouch, leading to regurgitation of undigested material, characteristic halitosis from bacterial growth, and audible gurgling as air and contents move in the pouch with swallowing. This makes Zenker diverticulum the best fit for the presentation. In contrast, achalasia causes progressive difficulty with swallowing both solids and liquids and often a dilated esophagus without the same localized pouch-related regurgitation or halitosis. Esophageal varices typically present with bleeding rather than regurgitation of undigested food. Pyloric stenosis presents in infancy with projectile vomiting due to gastric outlet obstruction, not an upper esophageal diverticulum.
Question 2
A 50-year-old man with hematuria and a history of smoking. Which cancer is most likely?
Correct Answer:
Bladder cancer (transitional cell carcinoma)
Explanation:
Smoking exposure raises the risk of bladder cancer, and painless blood in the urine is a classic presenting sign of urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma of the bladder. The carcinogens in tobacco are filtered into the urine and contact the bladder lining, promoting mutations that lead to cancer. Among urologic cancers, this combination—hematuria with a smoking history—most strongly points to bladder cancer. Prostate cancer can cause urinary symptoms or elevated PSA but does not fit as neatly with painless hematuria in this context. Kidney stones can cause hematuria too, but they usually present with colicky flank pain rather than a cancer-type presentation. Renal cell carcinoma can cause hematuria, but its strongest association isn’t as tied to smoking as bladder cancer and it often comes with flank pain or a palpable mass. So, bladder cancer (transitional cell carcinoma) is the most likely diagnosis here.
Question 3
A 38-year-old man with diabetes and no proteinuria; LDL 95 mg/dL; BP 120/80; HbA1c 10%. Which intervention is most likely to decrease morbidity?
Correct Answer:
Commence metformin
Explanation:
The key idea is that severe hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes is most effectively addressed first with a glucose-lowering medication, because improving glycemic control reduces long-term complications and overall morbidity. Starting metformin is the best choice here because it directly lowers hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity, which lowers HbA1c and reduces microvascular complications (retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy) and even mortality in overweight patients. The patient’s blood pressure is normal and there’s no proteinuria, so ACE inhibitors for kidney protection aren’t currently a priority. Although statins and aspirin have cardiovascular benefits, the immediate and strongest impact on reducing morbidity in this scenario comes from correcting the marked hyperglycemia with metformin.
Question 4
Which CT finding is typical of an epidural hematoma?
Correct Answer:
Biconvex-shaped
Explanation:
Epidural hematomas on CT are classically a biconvex (lens-shaped) hyperdense collection between the skull and the dura. This shape comes from bleeding, usually arterial (often from the middle meningeal artery) after trauma, and the hematoma is confined by the sutures of the skull, so it tends to have that characteristic lens appearance rather than spreading along the surface. The other patterns point to different processes: a crescent-shaped collection is typical for a subdural hematoma, a diffuse hypodense area suggests generalized brain edema or chronic changes, and a ring-enhancing lesion is more consistent with an abscess or tumorous lesion that has developed a contrast ring.
Question 5
An 8-year-old with a long history of recurrent pulmonary infections and progressive peripheral neuropathy is most consistent with which diagnosis, given fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies?
Correct Answer:
Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:
Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K) depend on proper fat digestion and pancreatic enzymes to be absorbed. When fat absorption is impaired, as in fat-malabsorption syndromes, you see deficiencies of these vitamins. In a child with long-standing recurrent pulmonary infections, think of a condition that causes both chronic lung disease and exocrine pancreatic insufficiency. Cystic fibrosis fits perfectly: thick mucus blocks the airways leading to infections, and the pancreatic ducts become obstructed, reducing enzyme delivery to the gut and causing fat malabsorption. That malabsorption explains the fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, and the neuropathy can be a manifestation of vitamin E deficiency. The other options don’t link chronic lung infections with fat-malabsorption–related vitamin deficiencies in a way that matches this presentation.
Question 1
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Prepare with the Mehlman High Yield Risk Factors Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering year-old, pulmonary, history, diabetes, and finding. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Mehlman High Yield Risk Factors Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on year-old, pulmonary, history, diabetes, and finding. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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