Question 1
For PCOS patients who wish to conceive, which medication is commonly used to induce ovulation?
Correct Answer:
Clomiphene
Explanation:
In PCOS, the main barrier to conception is ovulation not occurring regularly, so the goal is to stimulate the ovaries to ovulate. The medication most commonly used for this purpose is clomiphene citrate, a selective estrogen receptor modulator. It works by blocking estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, tricking the brain into thinking estrogen levels are low. That reduces negative feedback and increases GnRH pulses, which then raise FSH and LH from the pituitary. With higher FSH, a dominant follicle can mature and ovulation can occur, improving chances of pregnancy in PCOS. Clinically, clomiphene is typically started early in the cycle (for example, on days 3–5) at a standard dose such as 50 mg daily, with potential gradual increases in subsequent cycles if ovulation doesn’t occur. Expectation is that many patients will ovulate, though pregnancy rates per cycle are modest and multiple gestation risk is a consideration. Metformin, if insulin resistance is present, can help some patients regain ovulation and is sometimes used in combination, but it is not the primary ovulation-inducing agent. OCPs regulate cycles or prevent pregnancy, not induce ovulation, and spironolactone targets androgen excess rather than triggering ovulation.
Question 2
In evaluating tPA eligibility for stroke, which timing concept is used?
Correct Answer:
Time Since Last Known Normal
Explanation:
The timing anchor used for deciding tPA eligibility is the moment the patient was last known to be normal. This matters because many stroke patients cannot report exactly when symptoms began, so using the last time they were normal provides a concrete start point to calculate the treatment window. For IV tPA, that window is based on elapsed time since that last normal moment, guiding whether the patient still qualifies within the permitted hours. Time since hospital arrival isn’t the deciding factor because a patient can arrive early or late relative to onset, and the key issue is how long ago symptoms started. Time since last known normal is preferred because it directly ties the treatment decision to the actual onset of symptoms, even when onset time is uncertain.
Question 3
A patient has marked leukocytosis with a low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase score. The most probable diagnosis is:
Correct Answer:
Leukemoid reaction
Explanation:
Understanding leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) helps separate reactive leukocytosis from a malignant myeloproliferative process. In a leukemoid reaction, neutrophils are elevated due to infection or stress, and LAP activity is high because the neutrophils are functionally active in a reactive state. By contrast, chronic myeloid leukemia involves clonal proliferation of myeloid cells with low LAP activity, reflecting a malignant process rather than a reactive one. So when you see marked leukocytosis with a low LAP score, the pattern points toward chronic myeloid leukemia rather than a leukemoid reaction. Additional clues for CML include basophilia, SAMPLEsplenomegaly, and commonly the Philadelphia chromosome (BCR-ABL) or related molecular findings. Acute leukemias would typically present with blasts and different laboratory features rather than a low LAP pattern.
Question 4
Splenectomy is a treatment option for which hereditary red blood cell membrane disorder?
Correct Answer:
Hereditary Spherocytosis
Explanation:
Hereditary spherocytosis involves defects in the red blood cell membrane skeleton that make cells spherical and less deformable. Those abnormally shaped cells are marked for destruction by the spleen, leading to ongoing hemolysis and usually an enlarged spleen. Removing the spleen reduces the primary site of red cell destruction, easing hemolysis and often improving anemia in severe cases. It’s especially considered when there is significant splenomegaly or hypersplenism. After splenectomy, there’s a higher risk of infection with encapsulated bacteria, so vaccines and sometimes antibiotic prophylaxis are important. The other conditions listed are not membrane disorders, so splenectomy isn’t used for them as a primary treatment.
Question 5
In anemia of chronic disease, which statement about iron is most accurate?
Correct Answer:
Serum iron is low
Explanation:
In anemia of chronic disease, inflammation drives iron into storage and out of circulation. Inflammatory signals stimulate the liver to produce hepcidin, a hormone that blocks ferroportin, the iron-exporting protein on gut cells and macrophages. When ferroportin is inhibited, iron can’t leave stores or be released into the bloodstream, so the circulating serum iron falls even though body iron stores (ferritin) may be normal or elevated. This sequestration also leads to lower transferrin saturation and a reduced ability to mobilize iron for red blood cell production. So the most accurate statement is that serum iron is low, reflecting iron being held in storage rather than shortage of total body iron.
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Prepare with the Mehlman High Yield Practice Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering commonly, patient, pcos, mehlman, and high. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Mehlman High Yield Practice Exam

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