Question 1
Which radiographic finding is typical of rheumatoid arthritis in the hands?
Correct Answer:
Marginal erosions
Explanation:
In rheumatoid arthritis the inflammatory process targets the synovium of small hand joints, and the destructive pannus that forms at the joint margin erodes adjacent bone. The radiographic hallmark in the hands is marginal erosions—erosions that occur at the margins of the joint, often at the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints. These erosions accompany juxta-articular osteopenia (loss of bone density near the joints) and progressive joint-space narrowing as the disease advances, eventually leading to characteristic hand deformities. So, the finding described as marginal erosions best fits RA in the hands because it reflects the targeted, margin-destroying bone damage driven by synovial inflammation. Other options point to sites or processes not typical for hand radiographs in RA (for example, cervical spine involvement like atlantoaxial subluxation, which isn’t a hand finding; vertebral changes or hip complications like AVN), so they don’t represent the classic hand radiographic feature of RA.
Question 2
In gout management, what is the approach to acute treatment and long-term urate-lowering therapy?
Correct Answer:
Acute: colchicine therapy only; chronic: febuxostat with no monitoring
Explanation:
Managing an acute gout attack while planning long-term urate-lowering therapy requires separating immediate anti-inflammatory care from chronic urate control. For the acute flare, use anti-inflammatory treatment to rapidly relieve pain and inflammation—nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or colchicine are first choices, with steroids reserved if NSAIDs or colchicine are not suitable. This addresses the current inflammation and helps the patient regain function quickly. For long-term prevention, aim to lower serum urate with a xanthine oxidase inhibitor such as allopurinol or febuxostat. Start urate-lowering therapy after the acute attack has resolved, not during the flare, to avoid prolonging or worsening inflammation. When initiating urate-lowering therapy, it’s common to add flare prophylaxis with low-dose colchicine or NSAIDs for several months to prevent new attacks during the adjustment period. The goal is to reach and maintain a target serum urate—generally below 6 mg/dL, and even lower (below 5 mg/dL) if tophi are present—through regular monitoring and dose adjustment. Probenecid is an option in patients with good renal function and underexcretion, but it’s not universally used and still benefits from urate level monitoring. Overall, treatment combines effective control of the acute episode with careful, monitored reduction of uric acid to prevent future flares.
Question 3
Raynaud's phenomenon can involve which areas?
Correct Answer:
Fingers and possibly other acral regions
Explanation:
Raynaud's phenomenon is episodic vasospasm of the small arteries in distal extremities in response to cold or stress. The most common sites are the fingers, and the toes often participate as well; it can also involve other acral regions such as the nose, ears, or lips during an attack. It is not limited to a single area like just the fingers or just the palms, and it commonly affects multiple acral sites. Therefore, describing it as involving the fingers and possibly other acral regions best fits the pattern.
Question 4
In Sjögren's syndrome, increased risk of lymphoma is associated with which finding
Correct Answer:
Cryoglobulinaemia
Explanation:
In Sjögren's syndrome, the risk of developing lymphoma is linked to evidence of abnormal B-cell activity, and cryoglobulinemia is a key indicator of that process. Cryoglobulins are immunoglobulins that precipitate at cold temperatures and reflect a clonal or oligoclonal B-cell proliferation with immune complex formation. This underlying B-cell dysregulation correlates with an increased risk of lymphoproliferative disorders, including lymphoma, in Sjögren's patients. Cryoglobulinemia is often accompanied by reduced complement levels due to immune complex–mediated activation, which further signals active immune dysregulation. The other options don’t carry the same risk signal. A negative salivary gland biopsy would not specifically indicate higher lymphoma risk. Renal tubular acidosis is a renal manifestation of Sjögren's, not a marker for lymphoma risk. Hypercomplementaemia (elevated C4) is not characteristic of the cryoglobulin–associated processes seen with escalating lymphoma risk; in fact, complement is typically consumed, leading to lower levels.
Question 5
In acute kidney injury, prerenal azotemia due to hypoperfusion is best managed by:
Correct Answer:
Prerenal AKI due to hypoperfusion; treat with volume resuscitation and address the cause.
Explanation:
When prerenal AKI is caused by hypoperfusion, the kidneys are structurally intact but not receiving enough blood flow. The priority is to restore renal perfusion and fix the underlying cause of the reduced forward flow. This is best achieved with volume repletion using appropriate IV fluids (often isotonic crystalloids) and by addressing factors driving the low effective circulating volume or low blood pressure (such as dehydration, hemorrhage, sepsis, or heart failure with poor forward flow). As kidney perfusion improves, GFR increases and creatinine and azotemia typically improve. Dialysis is not the first step in this scenario; it’s reserved for situations where AKI persists despite restoration of perfusion or for life-threatening complications (severe hyperkalemia, acidosis, uremia, or refractory fluid overload). Diuretics do not correct the underlying perfusion problem and are not the primary treatment for prerenal azotemia, though they may be used later if volume overload becomes an issue after perfusion is restored. Helpful context: prerenal azotemia often shows a low urine sodium and a high BUN/creatinine ratio, reflecting preserved tubular function and avid reabsorption due to reduced perfusion. These signs typically improve with successful volume resuscitation and correction of the underlying cause.
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Prepare with the Internal Medicine II Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering finding, acute, therapy, syndrome, and associated. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Internal Medicine II Practice Test

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