Question 1
A hospitalized client is to receive nadolol. Which finding should prompt the nurse to hold the medication and notify the provider?
Correct Answer:
Heart rate 56/min
Explanation:
Nadolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that slows heart rate and reduces conduction through the heart’s electrical system. When the pulse is too slow, cardiac output can drop, leading to decreased tissue perfusion and potential hypotension. A heart rate of 56/min indicates clinically significant bradycardia, which is a clear reason to hold the medication and notify the provider for guidance on dose adjustment or alternative therapy. The other findings don’t point to an immediate need to stop nadolol: a blood pressure of 102/68 is borderline but not necessarily dangerous by itself, glucose is normal, and urine output is reduced but not directly caused by the beta-blocker. The key safety cue here is the bradycardia.
Question 2
A client had an abnormal MSAFP at 18 weeks; amniocentesis completed at 22 weeks. Which nursing action has priority?
Correct Answer:
Monitor fetal heart tones and uterine activity.
Explanation:
The most important focus after an amniocentesis is the fetus’s status and the uterus’s activity. Monitoring fetal heart tones shows whether the fetus is tolerating the procedure and remaining stable, while watching for uterine contractions or changes in tone helps detect potential complications such as preterm labor or fetal distress early. These immediate risks outweigh other concerns, making continuous assessment of fetal well-being the priority. After that, assessing the needle entry site for signs of infection is still due, but it’s not the urgent priority compared with ensuring the fetus remains stable. Maternal blood pressure monitoring is important for overall pregnancy care but doesn’t address the direct post-procedure risks to the fetus. Providing opportunity for the client to express feelings is important for support, yet it does not address the immediate physical risk to the fetus.
Question 3
Which statement about HIPAA privacy is NOT correct?
Correct Answer:
Primary healthcare providers employed at the facility where a client receives treatment can legally access any client's health information at any time.
Explanation:
The key idea is that access to a patient’s protected health information is restricted to those who need it to provide care, and only the minimum necessary information should be seen. The statement that primary healthcare providers at the same facility can legally access any client’s health information at any time contradicts this principle. HIPAA requires that access be limited to those involved in the patient’s treatment and only to the extent needed to do their job, protecting confidentiality and reducing unnecessary exposure. The other statements align with HIPAA: information shared with healthcare personnel is kept confidential, patients have the right to access and obtain copies of their records, and disclosures can occur with the patient’s permission or when required by law. There are also allowed disclosures without explicit patient consent in certain circumstances (such as for treatment, payment, or healthcare operations or as mandated by law), but blanket access to all patients’ records at any time is not permitted.
Question 4
A client at a mental health center has expressed suicidal thoughts and has access to firearms at home. Which action is priority?
Correct Answer:
Inform the family and ask them to remove the guns.
Explanation:
In this moment, the priority is to reduce the immediate risk of self-harm by removing access to lethal means. Firearms in the home dramatically raise the chance of a fatal outcome if someone is suicidal, so secure removing or significantly restricting access is the most effective, time-sensitive safety step. Informing the family and asking them to remove the guns mobilizes a support system that can help ensure the person stays safe while you assess and address their mental health needs. Empathizing and listening is essential for rapport and trust, but it doesn’t reduce the imminent danger on its own. Asking the person to come back tomorrow delays safety. Charting the thinking pattern and arranging a follow-up, while useful for ongoing care, does not address the immediate risk. Prioritizing safety by removing access to the means of harm takes precedence, then you can proceed with a full risk assessment, ongoing support, and a concrete safety plan.
Question 5
A newly diagnosed diabetic learns about regular insulin. When is the greatest risk for hypoglycemia after the 8:00 a.m. dose?
Correct Answer:
11:00 AM
Explanation:
Regular insulin has a clear action profile: it begins working about 30 minutes after injection, peaks around 2 to 4 hours after dosing, and lasts roughly 6 to 8 hours. After an 8:00 a.m. dose, the peak effect occurs roughly between 10:00 a.m. and noon. The risk of hypoglycemia is highest during this peak when insulin’s glucose-lowering effect is strongest. So the time closest to the peak—around 11:00 a.m.—is when hypoglycemia risk is greatest. The earlier time is before the peak, and the later times are after the peak when insulin activity is waning, so the risk is lower then.
Question 1
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Prepare with the Hurst Readiness Exam 2 Practice practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering client, nurse, provider, weeks, and nursing. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Hurst Readiness Exam 2 Practice

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