Question 1
A 25-year-old male with celiac disease presents with occult positive stools. What vitamin deficiency should be considered?
Correct Answer:
Vitamin K deficiency
Explanation:
Fat malabsorption from celiac disease means fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K can become deficient. Among these, vitamin K deficiency stands out because it directly impairs the body's ability to clot. Vitamin K is needed to activate clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X (and proteins C and S). Without enough vitamin K, the coagulation cascade is weakened, increasing bleeding risk. This can manifest as mucosal or GI bleeding, including occult blood in the stool. So when a patient with celiac disease develops occult positive stools, vitamin K deficiency and related coagulopathy is the most relevant deficiency to consider. Other fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies (A, D, E) cause vision, bone, or neurologic symptoms rather than bleeding tendencies, making them less likely explanations for occult stool positivity.
Question 2
Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with type IIb von Willebrand disease?
Correct Answer:
Increased aggregation to low-dose ristocetin
Explanation:
This question hinges on how a specific vWF abnormality alters its interaction with platelets in a ristocetin test. In type IIb von Willebrand disease, the vWF molecule has a gain-of-function change that makes it bind much more readily to the platelet receptor GPIb. Ristocetin promotes the vWF-GPIb interaction; when the vWF is hyperactive, even very low doses of ristocetin can cause platelets to cross-link and clump together. That produces an exaggerated aggregation response at low ristocetin concentrations—the hallmark finding for this type. Thrombocytopenia can accompany this pattern because those vWF-platelet complexes are cleared more rapidly, but the defining lab feature remains increased aggregation with low-dose ristocetin. Other patterns, like decreased aggregation or normal responses, would not reflect this heightened GPIb-vWF interaction seen in type IIb. Hence, increased aggregation to low-dose ristocetin is the best fit.
Question 3
A patient presents with a low protein S activity and low total and free protein S antigens. The C4b binding protein is normal. This is classified as:
Correct Answer:
type I
Explanation:
The main idea here is how protein S deficiency is categorized by how much protein S there is (quantity) and how well it works (function), taking into account the two forms it can take in the blood: free S (active) and S bound to C4b-binding protein (C4BP). The total protein S antigen reflects both free and bound S, while the free portion is the active cofactor for anticoagulation. In a type I deficiency, there is a quantitative shortage of protein S: both free and total antigen levels are low, and the functional activity is reduced. In a type II deficiency, the amount of protein S is normal, but its function is impaired (normal antigen, reduced activity). In a type III deficiency, total protein S may be normal, but free protein S is decreased because more S is bound to C4BP, leading to reduced activity as well; this scenario is typically accompanied by elevated C4BP levels that drive the shift toward binding. This patient has low total protein S antigen, low free protein S antigen, and low protein S activity, with normal C4BP. The pattern fits a quantitative deficiency (type I), since both antigen levels are reduced and the activity is low, and the normal C4BP argues against the type III pattern where free S is decreased due to excess binding to C4BP.
Question 4
Factor XII deficiency is typically associated with which bleeding history?
Correct Answer:
Has a negative bleeding history
Explanation:
Factor XII deficiency prolongs laboratory tests of the intrinsic pathway (aPTT) but does not cause abnormal bleeding in real life. In vivo, hemostasis can proceed normally even without Factor XII, so most patients have a negative bleeding history. This makes the typical answer that there is no history of abnormal bleeding the best choice. Heavy bleeding is not expected because Factor XII is not essential for initial hemostasis. Platelet count isn’t affected by this deficiency, so a low platelet count wouldn’t be expected. PT is usually normal because Factor XII is part of the intrinsic pathway (measured by aPTT), not the extrinsic pathway (measured by PT).
Question 5
The anticoagulant that directly inhibits thrombin is:
Correct Answer:
Argatroban
Explanation:
The key idea here is how the drug interacts with thrombin. A direct thrombin inhibitor binds to thrombin itself and blocks its enzymatic activity, preventing it from converting fibrinogen to fibrin. Argatroban does exactly that: it directly inhibits thrombin, affecting both free thrombin and thrombin bound in clots. In contrast, other options act indirectly or target a different factor. Low-molecular-weight heparin enhances the activity of antithrombin to mainly inhibit factor Xa, with only a limited direct effect on thrombin. Warfarin reduces the synthesis of several vitamin K–dependent coagulation factors, not thrombin directly. Rivaroxaban inhibits factor Xa directly, not thrombin. Thus, Argatroban is the direct thrombin inhibitor.
Question 1
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Prepare with the Hemostasis Coagulation Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering protein, presents, deficiency, platelet, and normal. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Hemostasis Coagulation Practice Test

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