Question 1
ASPECTS score is used to quantify ischemic changes in which vascular territory on NCCT and to determine eligibility for which procedure?
Correct Answer:
MCA territory; mechanical thrombectomy
Explanation:
ASPECTS measures early ischemic changes on a non-contrast CT specifically within the middle cerebral artery territory. It looks at ten predefined brain regions, and each region showing signs of ischemia lowers the score by one, so a higher total means less established damage. This quick, regional assessment helps clinicians judge how much salvageable brain tissue remains and whether a patient with an acute ischemic stroke due to a large vessel occlusion in the anterior circulation is a good candidate for mechanical thrombectomy. In practice, a higher score suggests the patient is more likely to benefit from clot retrieval, while a very low score points to extensive established infarction where the risk/benefit of endovascular therapy is less favorable. While MCA involvement is the focus for this scoring, other territories (like PCA or vertebrobasilar) use different assessment patterns, and procedures like carotid endarterectomy or systemic thrombolysis are not guided by ASPECTS in the same way. Decompressive surgery is used for malignant edema in certain large infarcts and is not the decision point this scoring informs.
Question 2
Which sites are commonly involved in orolingual angioedema?
Correct Answer:
Lips, tongue, mouth, throat
Explanation:
Oralingual angioedema mainly affects the structures of the mouth and throat because these mucosal tissues are highly vascular and can rapidly swell when permeability increases. The lips, tongue, floor of the mouth, soft palate, and other parts of the oral/pharyngeal area are the classic sites because swelling here directly narrows the airway and can become life-threatening if not recognized and managed promptly. Edema in other regions like the ankles and feet, ears, or scalp isn’t typical for this condition, since those areas aren’t the primary sites involved in orolingual angioedema. Recognizing the pattern of swelling in the lips and tongue helps identify the risk to the airway and guides urgent assessment and appropriate management.
Question 3
What cardiac complication is observed in about 25% of stroke patients within 72 hours?
Correct Answer:
Arrhythmias including A-fib
Explanation:
After an acute stroke, the brain’s autonomic control over the heart can become unstable, leading to electrical disturbances in the heart. In the first few days, about a quarter of patients develop cardiac rhythm problems, and atrial fibrillation is the most common among them. This makes arrhythmias including AF the best answer for the observed early cardiac complication. While a myocardial infarction can occur, it is not the typical early event in this context and doesn’t happen in about 25% of patients within 72 hours. Heart failure is not universal in stroke patients. Pulmonary embolism can happen but is not seen in the majority within 24 hours.
Question 4
How do DAWN and DEFUSE-3 criteria differ for extending the thrombectomy window?
Correct Answer:
Both use the same criteria.
Explanation:
The key idea is that these trials use different ways to identify tissue that can still be saved and, as a result, extend the treatment window in different ways. In DAWN, eligibility is based on a clinical deficit that is out of proportion to the apparent infarct core — a clinical-core mismatch. This means you look at how severe the neurological symptoms are compared with how large the infarct looks on imaging, and if they don’t match up, you may still treat up to 24 hours after onset. In DEFUSE-3, eligibility relies on perfusion imaging to show a perfusion (penumbral) mismatch — there’s a substantial amount of salvageable tissue relative to the core infarct. This approach extends treatment to about 16 hours after onset. So they’re not the same criteria. DAWN uses clinical-core mismatch and allows a longer window up to 24 hours, while DEFUSE-3 uses perfusion mismatch and extends the window to about 16 hours.
Question 5
If mechanical thrombectomy is being considered, what imaging is recommended?
Correct Answer:
Advanced imaging such as CT perfusion or MRI
Explanation:
When considering thrombectomy, you need to know both where the blockage is and how much brain tissue can still be saved. A plain CT head mainly rules out bleeding and isn’t enough to judge tissue viability. A CT angiography can show the occluded vessel, but it doesn’t tell you how much brain is already infarcted versus how much remains at risk. Advanced imaging, like CT perfusion or MRI, provides detailed maps of blood flow and tissue viability, highlighting a potentially salvageable penumbra (tissue at risk) vs. the irreversibly damaged core. This information is especially important for patients outside the standard 6-hour window or in uncertain onset times, helping determine whether thrombectomy is likely to benefit. Ultrasound of the carotids doesn’t assess brain tissue viability in this acute decision. So, advanced perfusion-based imaging is the recommended approach when thrombectomy is being considered.
Question 1
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Prepare with the Hemisphere IV Rapid Stroke Response Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering stroke, thrombectomy, observed, hours, and imaging. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Hemisphere IV Rapid Stroke Response Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on stroke, thrombectomy, observed, hours, and imaging. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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