Question 1
Doug, 12, experiences frequent nosebleeds, easy bruising, and blood in the urine; his parents discourage him from contact sports due to his condition. Which disorder best explains his symptoms?
Correct Answer:
Hemophilia
Explanation:
Bleeding that occurs easily—especially frequent nosebleeds and bruising—along with blood in the urine in a young boy points to a inherited defect in the clotting cascade rather than a problem with blood cells. Hemophilia is a deficiency of a coagulation factor (most often factor VIII or IX) that impairs the body's ability to form a stable fibrin clot. Because the clotting process is defective, bleeding after minor injuries can be prolonged and mucosal sites like the nose or urinary tract can ooze. The male patient fits the X-linked pattern of Hemophilia, which is why this tends to present in boys. In contrast, lymphomas or leukemias involve abnormal cell growth and typically present with systemic symptoms and abnormal blood counts rather than a primary problem with clotting factors, making them less likely explanations for this specific bleeding pattern.
Question 2
CAR-T cell therapy: concept and approved indications.
Correct Answer:
Autologous T cells engineered to express chimeric antigen receptor targeting CD19; approved for relapsed/refractory B-cell ALL and certain B-cell lymphomas
Explanation:
CAR-T cell therapy uses a patient’s own T cells that are collected, genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor targeting CD19 on B cells, and then expanded and reinfused after a brief period of lymphodepleting chemotherapy. This engineered receptor lets the T cells recognize and kill malignant B cells with high specificity. CD19 is a common target because it is present on most B-lineage cells, including many malignant ones, making this approach effective across several B-cell cancers. The approved indications reflect its use in relapsed or refractory B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia and certain relapsed/refractory B-cell lymphomas after other therapies have failed. It is not a standard treatment for acute myeloid leukemia, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, or other non-B-cell malignancies, and it differs from monoclonal antibody therapies against CD20, which are non-genetic antibody-based approaches rather than T cells engineered to attack the cancer. While most approved CAR-T products use autologous T cells, research into allogeneic CAR-T and other cell types like NK cells is ongoing.
Question 3
Which laboratory finding will be abnormal in a child with hemophilia?
Correct Answer:
The partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Explanation:
Hemophilia is a deficiency of intrinsic pathway coagulation factors (such as factor VIII or IX). The test that reflects this pathway is the partial thromboplastin time (PTT), so when intrinsic factors are lacking, the PTT is prolonged. Platelet count remains normal because platelets and primary hemostasis are not the primary problem in hemophilia, and white blood cell count is not affected by this bleeding disorder. Hemoglobin might decrease with ongoing bleeding, but that is a secondary effect rather than a diagnostic feature. Therefore, the abnormal lab finding you’d expect is an increased PTT.
Question 4
Which of the following is a precipitating factor for a sickle cell crisis?
Correct Answer:
Stress
Explanation:
Stress can trigger a sickle cell crisis because emotional or physical stress activates the sympathetic system, raising metabolic demands and often causing vasoconstriction and relative tissue hypoxia. This combination promotes deoxygenation of hemoglobin S, encouraging its polymerization, which makes red cells rigid and prone to clog small vessels, leading to a vaso-occlusive crisis. Dehydration, infection, and low oxygen levels are classic triggers, while fluid overload doesn’t directly promote sickling, insomnia isn’t a direct precipitant, and sticking with treatment for infections (antibiotics) helps prevent crises rather than precipitating them.
Question 5
For splenic sequestration crisis in sickle cell disease, which treatment is listed?
Correct Answer:
Splenectomy is a treatment option
Explanation:
Splenic sequestration crisis occurs when the spleen suddenly traps a large volume of red blood cells, causing a rapid drop in hemoglobin and potential shock. The goal is to stop the sequestration and prevent recurrence. Splenectomy is a treatment option for patients with recurrent or severe episodes because removing the spleen eliminates the primary site where blood pooling happens, reducing the risk of future crises. The other choices don’t address the underlying problem: antibiotics alone don’t fix the sequestration since it isn’t an infection; doing nothing isn’t safe in a crisis; iron chelation therapy treats iron overload from transfusions, not the acute sequestration.
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Prepare with the Hematologic, Immunologic, and Neoplastic Disorders Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering cell, sickle, crisis, factor, and disease. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Hematologic, Immunologic, and Neoplastic Disorders Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on cell, sickle, crisis, factor, and disease. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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