Question 1
In the FAST stroke assessment, which symptom corresponds to the 'F' component?
Correct Answer:
Face drooping
Explanation:
The main idea here is recognizing signs of a possible stroke quickly using the FAST mnemonic. F stands for Face, so the symptom linked to this component is face drooping. To check it, ask the person to smile or show their teeth and look for an uneven smile or a face that appears numb on one side. That facial weakness on one side is a common stroke sign. Arm weakness would relate to raising both arms to see if one drifts down, and speech difficulty involves repeating a simple sentence to check for slurred or strange speech. Time to call emergency emphasizes acting fast once a stroke is suspected. So, the symptom matching the F component is face drooping.
Question 2
What does the FAST stroke assessment stand for?
Correct Answer:
Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call emergency.
Explanation:
FAST stands for Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call emergency. This mnemonic helps you quickly spot signs of a possible stroke and act fast because every minute counts. Face drooping points to facial weakness on one side, Arm weakness suggests a motor deficit on one side of the body, and Speech difficulty indicates trouble with language centers in the brain. The reminder to Time to call emergency emphasizes getting urgent medical help right away so imaging and treatment can begin as soon as possible, which improves outcomes. If any of these signs appear, seek emergency care immediately—even if symptoms seem to improve later. Other listed ideas like swelling or unrelated symptoms aren’t part of this FAST checklist.
Question 3
Which components does the HIPAA Privacy Rule require to protect patient information in routine clinic operations?
Correct Answer:
Safeguarding PHI, restricting disclosures to the minimum necessary, and providing patient rights to access and amend records; practice policies, training, and breach notification.
Explanation:
Protecting patient information in routine clinic operations comes from combining safeguards for PHI, limiting disclosures to the minimum necessary, and upholding patients’ rights, all supported by clear practice policies, staff training, and a plan for breach notification. Safeguarding PHI means using administrative, physical, and technical safeguards to prevent unauthorized access, use, or disclosure. Limiting disclosures to the minimum necessary ensures staff only share the information needed to accomplish a task or provide care. Providing patients with access to their records and the ability to amend them preserves their control over personal health information. In addition, documented privacy policies and ongoing staff training establish consistent expectations and behaviors, and breach notification ensures that individuals and authorities are informed if a SAMPLEprivacy incident occurs. The other options ignore these essential protections—free sharing with all staff, no breach notifications, or marketing disclosures without proper safeguards—so they don’t align with how PHI must be handled under HIPAA.
Question 4
In CPR with an AED, what is the correct rate and ratio for chest compressions?
Correct Answer:
100-120 compressions per minute with a 30:2 ratio.
Explanation:
Understanding how fast to push and how to pair compressions with breaths when an AED is involved is essential for effective CPR. The recommended rate is 100 to 120 compressions per minute, and when a single rescuer is performing CPR with an AED, the cycle is 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths (30:2). This rhythm maintains blood flow to vital organs while allowing brief pauses for breaths and defibrillation checks. The other options miss either the correct pace or the correct single-rescuer ratio: 60-80 per minute is too slow to sustain circulation, 120-140 per minute with continuous compressions overlooks the necessary breaths and cadence, and 80-100 per minute with a 15:2 ratio reflects a two-rescuer protocol while not matching the standard single-rescuer guidance.
Question 5
Which are the three primary body planes?
Correct Answer:
Sagittal (left-right), frontal/coronal (front-back), and transverse (upper-lower).
Explanation:
Three primary body planes form a basic framework for describing location and direction in anatomy: sagittal, frontal (coronal), and transverse. The sagittal plane slices the body into left and right portions. The frontal or coronal plane separates front from back. The transverse plane, also called horizontal, divides the body into upper and lower parts. The answer lists these three planes with their standard orientations: sagittal (left-right), frontal/coronal (front-back), and transverse (upper-lower). Other options either omit a plane or use alternate terms without adding a distinct plane, which can blur the standard three-plane system.
Question 1
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Prepare with the GMA Comprehensive Practice Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering fast, stroke, arms, and comprehensive. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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GMA Comprehensive Practice Exam

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on fast, stroke, arms, and comprehensive. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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