Question 1
What is the primary endocrine emergency characterized by sudden adrenal insufficiency?
Correct Answer:
Adrenal crisis (acute adrenal insufficiency)
Explanation:
The question is testing recognition of an acute adrenal crisis, a life-threatening emergency caused by sudden adrenal insufficiency. When the adrenal glands don’t produce enough cortisol (and often aldosterone), the body loses the ability to maintain vascular tone, sodium and water balance, and glucose. This leads to rapid hypotension, dehydration, electrolyte disturbances (hyponatremia, hyperkalemia), hypoglycemia, and shock. The key is that cortisol deficiency under stress precipitates this crisis, so prompt recognition and treatment are urgent. This is managed immediately with aggressive IV fluids and stress-dose steroid replacement. Start with isotonic saline to correct volume depletion, assess and correct hypoglycemia, and administer glucocorticoids—typically an IV hydrocortisone bolus (around 100 mg), followed by continued high-dose dosing (for example, 50 mg IV every 6 hours or 100 mg IV every 8 hours). Do not wait for lab confirmation before starting treatment, because delay can be fatal. After stabilization, investigate the cause (primary adrenal failure vs secondary) and adjust long-term steroid therapy accordingly, with endocrine consultation. The other options describe different emergencies: a hypoglycemic crisis due to insulin is a glucose-management issue, not adrenal failure; a thyroid storm is an extreme hyperthyroid state; pituitary apoplexy is sudden pituitary hemorrhage with headache and visual symptoms and possible secondary adrenal insufficiency, but the hallmark crisis described here centers on suddenly failing adrenal hormone production.
Question 2
Which client scenario represents the highest fall risk due to combination of age, medication, and history?
Correct Answer:
An 80-year-old client on a new sedative with a history of falls
Explanation:
Fall risk is greatest when age-related changes, a sedating medication, and a history of falls all come together. Elderly individuals often have slower reflexes, balance issues, and vision changes that raise the chance of tipping or losing footing. A new sedative can dull alertness, impair coordination, cause dizziness, and lower blood pressure on standing, all of which increase the likelihood of a fall. A prior history of falls signals ongoing vulnerability and suggests that underlying factors—such as mobility limitations or sensitivity to medications—persist. When these three risk-enhancing factors coincide, the risk of falling is at its highest. In this set of scenarios, the elderly patient who has started a sedative and has a history of falls clearly carries the most risk because all three contributing factors are present. The younger, ambulatory person with no medications has the lowest baseline risk. The younger person recovering from a minor injury has some risk but not the age- or medication-related factors. The patient on strict bed rest with side rails up is largely protected from falls due to immobility, though other safety concerns can still exist.
Question 3
Which position is least effective at promoting venous return in a hypotensive patient?
Correct Answer:
Reverse Trendelenburg
Explanation:
Maximizing venous return relies on using gravity to move blood from the peripheral veins back toward the right atrium, thus increasing preload and potentially improving cardiac output in a hypotensive patient. Tilting the body head-down (Trendelenburg) pushes venous blood from the legs toward the central circulation, helping to raise the amount of blood returning to the heart. Lying with the head up (reverse Trendelenburg) has the opposite effect: gravity pulls blood toward the lower body and away from the heart, reducing central blood volume and venous return. The high Fowler’s position elevates the torso, which also tends to reduce venous return compared with a flat or head-down alignment, though not as dramatically as reverse Trendelenburg. Prone position doesn’t actively promote venous return and its influence is variable and less predictable. Therefore, the position least effective at promoting venous return in a hypotensive patient is the head-up, reverse Trendelenburg position.
Question 4
Which is an expected age-related change in a 68-year-old client?
Correct Answer:
Diminished vision and hearing loss
Explanation:
Age-related sensory change is being tested here, focusing on what commonly happens as people reach advanced age. In older adults, both the eyes and the ears are prone to gradual decline. The eye’s lens stiffens and accommodation decreases, and many develop conditions like cataracts or macular changes, leading to diminished vision. The inner ear also undergoes degenerative changes, especially in the hair cells and neural pathways, resulting in presbycusis—hearing loss that often worsens with age. Taken together, diminished vision and hearing loss are typical in a 68-year-old. The other options don’t fit typical aging patterns: night vision does not improve with age and may worsen; taste tends to decline rather than increase; skin generally becomes thinner and less elastic rather than thicker or more elastic.
Question 5
Which two measurements are required to calculate a client’s BMI?
Correct Answer:
Height and waist circumference
Explanation:
BMI is a measure that estimates body fat by comparing a person’s weight to their height. To calculate it, you need two measurements: height and weight. The standard formula uses weight in kilograms divided by the square of height in meters (or the equivalent using pounds and inches with the 703 multiplier). Waist circumference isn’t part of the BMI calculation; it’s used for assessing central adiposity or risk with other measures like waist-to-height or waist-to-hip ratios. Age isn’t a direct input for the BMI number, though interpretation can vary in children, where age-related growth charts are used. Hip circumference is used for different indices of body composition, not BMI. So, the two measurements required to calculate BMI are height and weight.
Question 1
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Prepare with the Clinical Medical-Surgical Practice Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering client, risk, combination, patient, and clinical. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Clinical Medical-Surgical Practice Exam

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