Question 1
Which of the following is commonly used to treat flow-limiting dissections during PCI?
Correct Answer:
stent
Explanation:
When a dissection narrows or blocks flow during PCI, the go-to treatment is placing a stent. The stent acts as a scaffold that holds the vessel open and presses the dissection flap against the wall, sealing the tear and preventing further propagation, which restores and stabilizes blood flow. Performing angioplasty alone can push the flap or leave it unsupported, increasing the risk of persistent flow limitation. Atherectomy modifies plaque but doesn’t address the dissection itself. Covered stents are reserved for cases with vessel rupture or larger, high-risk dissections; they’re not the routine choice for a standard flow-limiting dissection because of higher complication risks and other drawbacks.
Question 2
Initial dosage for Midazolam (Versed)?
Correct Answer:
.5-1 mg
Explanation:
Midazolam is a very potent, short-acting benzodiazepine used for anxiolysis and sedation, so its dosing is given in small, titratable increments rather than a single large amount. The safest and most reliable approach is to start with a small IV dose and then increase in tiny steps until the desired level of sedation is reached, all while carefully monitoring breathing, oxygenation, and circulation. This titration strategy minimizes the risk of oversedation and respiratory depression, which are more likely if you give a larger initial amount. Because of its potency, a sub-milligram to low-milligram starting dose is appropriate, and effects can be adjusted quickly with subsequent small doses. Doses expressed in micrograms would be far too small to achieve sedation, while larger fixed doses can lead to deeper sedation than intended. Reversal with flumazenil is available if needed, but safe practice emphasizes careful titration and monitoring throughout.
Question 3
Radial access compared with femoral access generally reduces which complication?
Correct Answer:
Reduced bleeding
Explanation:
Radial access generally reduces bleeding complications compared with femoral access because the wrist is a superficial, easily compressible site. After the procedure, manual pressure or a compression device can achieve hemostasis quickly and effectively, which lowers the risk of large groin hematomas, pseudoaneurysm, and transfusion-requiring bleeding that are more common with femoral access. While radial access can have other issues like radial artery occlusion or spasm, its impact on bleeding is the most notable advantage.
Question 4
In CRT, the LV pacing lead is delivered via which venous structure?
Correct Answer:
Coronary Sinus
Explanation:
In CRT, the left ventricular pacing lead is placed through the coronary venous system. After gaining venous access (often via the subclavian or axillary vein), the lead is advanced into the coronary sinus and then into a lateral or posterolateral vein of the left ventricle. The coronary sinus is a large vein that runs in the posterior atrioventricular groove and drains into the right atrium, providing a direct route to epicardial LV veins for stable LV pacing. The other structures listed aren’t the path for the LV lead: the superior vena cava is part of the drainage pathway to reach the right atrium but isn’t the route into LV veins; the left subclavian vein is an access site, not the LV lead’s final path; the pulmonary veins are in the left atrium and have no role in LV pacing lead delivery.
Question 5
Which medications are used to pre-treat a patient with a history of contrast allergies?
Correct Answer:
famotidine (H2 antagonist), diphenhydramine (antihistamine), Solu-Medrol (glucocorticoid)
Explanation:
Premedication to prevent contrast reactions relies on blocking histamine effects and damping inflammation before exposure. The standard approach uses an H1 antihistamine to reduce immediate histamine-driven symptoms, an H2 blocker to provide additional suppression of histamine’s effects on the vasculature, and a corticosteroid to lessen the inflammatory response that can contribute to a reaction. The combination of an H2 blocker (famotidine), an H1 blocker (diphenhydramine), and a glucocorticoid (Solu-Medrol, methylprednisolone) fits this strategy, making it the best choice. The other options mix drugs that are not used together for premedication in this scenario: epinephrine is reserved for treating acute reactions, not prophylaxis; sodium bicarbonate is mainly used for nephroprotection rather than allergy prevention; and while an older H2 blocker like cimetidine could be used, famotidine is preferred in current practice.
Question 1
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Prepare with the CCI Registered Cardiovascular Invasive Specialist (RCIS) Practice Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering commonly, access, left, registered, and cardiovascular. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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CCI Registered Cardiovascular Invasive Specialist (RCIS) Practice Exam

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on commonly, access, left, registered, and cardiovascular. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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