Question 1
In the G6PD deficiency case, which statement about the direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is true?
Correct Answer:
The DAT is negative
Explanation:
The direct antiglobulin test detects antibodies or complement on the surface of red blood cells, helping differentiate immune from non-immune hemolysis. In G6PD deficiency, the hemolysis arises from oxidative injury to red cells, not from immune coating, so red cells are not marked by antibodies or complement. That’s why the test is typically negative in this scenario. If the cause were immune-mediated, you’d expect a positive DAT, and the temperature at which it reacts (positive at 37°C for IgG, or at room temperature for certain cold antibodies) would reflect the type of immune hemolysis. A negative result here supports a non-immune mechanism of hemolysis, which fits G6PD deficiency.
Question 2
Lab tests on a patient with bone pain, recurrent kidney stones, abdominal discomfort and fatigue show Serum Mg 2.20 mmol/L, Ca 2.80 mmol/L, Phosphorus 0.70 mmol/L; Urine Ca INC, Urine Phos INC. What is the cause?
Correct Answer:
Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:
Elevated calcium with low phosphate and urinary calcium and phosphate loss points to excess parathyroid hormone activity on bone and kidney. In primary hyperparathyroidism, one gland overproduces PTH, often from an adenoma. PTH drives bone resorption and increases calcium reabsorption in the kidney while causing phosphate wasting. The result is high serum calcium, low serum phosphate, and hypercalciuria, which explains the kidney stones and bone pain. The other conditions don’t fit this pattern: hypoparathyroidism would lower calcium and raise phosphate; secondary hyperparathyroidism usually has low or normal calcium with high PTH in CKD; pseudohyperparathyroidism has high PTH with low calcium due to PTH resistance. Thus, the cause is primary hyperparathyroidism.
Question 3
Hashimoto's disease presents with which pattern of TSH and FT4?
Correct Answer:
TSH markedly elevated with low FT4 and FT3
Explanation:
Hashimoto's disease destroys thyroid tissue, leading to reduced thyroid hormone production. The pituitary senses the low hormones and elevates TSH in an attempt to stimulate the thyroid. So the common pattern is a markedly elevated TSH with low free T4 (and often low free T3). This is why the correct choice shows high TSH with low FT4. The other patterns point to different states: a hyperthyroid pattern would have suppressed TSH with high FT4, euthyroid would have normal TSH and FT4, and high TSH with high FT4 isn’t typical for Hashimoto’s.
Question 4
A platelet transfusion recipient a week later presents with mucous membrane bleeding and epistaxis. What is the likely transfusion reaction and its treatment?
Correct Answer:
Post-transfusion purpura; corticosteroids or IVIG.
Explanation:
Late-onset thrombocytopenia after a transfusion with mucosal bleeding points to post-transfusion purpura. This condition usually occurs about a week after transfusion and is driven by alloantibodies against platelet antigens (often HPA-1a) that cause the rapid destruction of platelets by the spleen and other reticuloendothelial tissues. The key clinical clue is a sudden, severe drop in platelets with mucous membrane bleeding, while coagulation tests remain normal, since the problem is platelet destruction rather than a coagulation factor defect. The treatment aims to stop the immune-mediated platelet destruction. High-dose corticosteroids or intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) are effective options: steroids suppress the immune response, and IVIG saturates Fc receptors on macrophages, reducing clearance of platelets. Platelet transfusions are often not helpful on their own because the transfused platelets can be destroyed by the same alloantibodies.
Question 5
In cold agglutinin disease, the DAT is most commonly positive for which component?
Correct Answer:
DAT positive for C3d only
Explanation:
This question hinges on how the direct antiglobulin test (DAT) appears in cold agglutinin disease, where the attack on red cells is driven primarily by IgM antibodies that fix complement. In cold agglutinin disease, IgM binds red cells at cold temperatures and activates the classical complement pathway, leaving complement fragments, especially C3 (C3b/C3d), attached to the red cell surface. The DAT uses reagents that detect either IgG or C3 on the surface of red cells. Because IgM is large and its binding is temperature-dependent, it is not reliably detected in standard DAT procedures, and it often dissociates at the warmer temperatures used in testing. In contrast, the C3 fragments that were deposited on the red cells remain and are detected by the DAT. As a result, the typical DAT pattern is positive for C3d (complement) and negative for IgG. So, the most consistent and characteristic finding is a DAT positive for C3d only, reflecting complement deposition rather than IgG coating.
Question 1
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Prepare with the CAMLPR Evaluation and Interpretation Competency Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering transfusion, shows, mmol, disease, and presents. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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CAMLPR Evaluation and Interpretation Competency Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on transfusion, shows, mmol, disease, and presents. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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