Question 1
Suspected septic arthritis in an adult: immediate workup and initial management?
Correct Answer:
Urgent joint aspiration with Gram stain, culture, cell count; imaging as needed; start IV antibiotics after aspiration and proceed to irrigation/debridement if purulent.
Explanation:
In suspected septic arthritis, action focuses on rapid confirmation of infection and immediate source control to prevent joint destruction. The key step is urgent aspiration of the affected joint to obtain synovial fluid for Gram stain, cell count, and culture. The fluid analysis typically shows a markedly elevated white blood cell count with neutrophil predominance, and cultures (and Gram stain) help identify the culprit organism so therapy can be targeted. Imaging, such as ultrasound, can help guide aspiration or assess the extent of effusion, but it should not delay drainage. Once the sample is obtained, start intravenous antibiotics right away to cover the common pathogens (especially Staphylococcus aureus, including MRSA) and to begin treatment promptly. Tailor the regimen when culture results come back. If the fluid is purulent or there’s evidence of ongoing infection, proceed to irrigation and debridement for definitive source control. Delaying drainage or waiting without action risks rapid joint damage and sepsis. Starting antibiotics before aspiration can reduce the diagnostic yield, so the preferred sequence is obtain synovial fluid first, then initiate empiric IV antibiotics, with escalation or de-escalation based on culture results.
Question 2
Which test assesses hip abductor strength?
Correct Answer:
Trendelenburg pelvic tilt test
Explanation:
The test focuses on assessing the strength of the hip abductors, primarily the gluteus medius and minimus. When you stand on one leg, these muscles keep the pelvis level. If the hip abductors on the stance leg are weak, the pelvis drops on the side opposite the stance leg, producing a positive Trendelenburg sign. This makes it a direct way to gauge abductor strength and pelvic stability during unilateral stance, which is why it best fits the question. The other tests are for different purposes: balance/proprioception with Romberg, screening for developmental hip instability in infants with the Barlow test, and meningeal irritation with Kernig sign.
Question 3
In suspected septic arthritis, when is MRI most appropriate?
Correct Answer:
For detailed assessment if ultrasound findings are inconclusive.
Explanation:
In suspected septic arthritis, ultrasound is used first to detect fluid and guide joint aspiration. MRI is most appropriate when ultrasound findings are inconclusive or when there is concern for more extensive disease that ultrasound cannot fully characterize. MRI provides superior soft-tissue contrast and can reveal bone marrow edema, occult osteomyelitis, synovitis, abscesses, and the precise extent of joint and surrounding tissue involvement, which is crucial for planning treatment. If ultrasound clearly shows a simple effusion with no signs suggesting deeper infection, MRI isn’t needed. MRI isn’t typically the first test in all suspected cases, and it isn’t usually used to guide aspiration—that role belongs to ultrasound.
Question 4
Which of the following factors is associated with prognosis after ACL reconstruction?
Correct Answer:
Age, activity level, graft type, concomitant meniscal injuries, rehab compliance, smoking
Explanation:
Prognosis after ACL reconstruction depends on multiple interacting factors that influence healing, graft incorporation, knee stability, and the ability to regain function. Age and activity level shape both the biology of healing and the demands the graft must withstand; younger, more active patients may push the graft harder and have different failure risks, while older patients may have slower healing but lower activity demands. Graft type matters because different graft sources (autograft vs allograft) have distinct healing timelines, strength properties, and donor-site effects that can influence early stability and long-term outcomes. Concomitant meniscal injuries affect knee mechanics, joint surface health, and the risk of later osteoarthritis, all of which impact prognosis. Rehabilitation compliance is crucial to restore range of motion, strength, and neuromuscular control and to enable a safe return to activity; poor adherence is a major predictor of poorer outcomes. Smoking impairs healing and graft maturation by reducing blood flow and tissue healing capacity, further affecting prognosis. Taken together, these factors provide a more accurate picture than any single element alone.
Question 5
Which factor described below would most clearly increase osteoporosis risk in an older male?
Correct Answer:
Chronic glucocorticoid therapy, age 70 years
Explanation:
Chronic glucocorticoid therapy is a major trigger for osteoporosis because it directly disrupts bone remodeling at multiple levels. These drugs suppress osteoblast formation and promote osteoblast and osteocyte death, leading to a sharp drop in bone formation. They also tilt the balance toward resorption by increasing RANKL and decreasing osteoprotegerin, so osteoclast activity rises. In addition, glucocorticoids reduce calcium absorption from the gut and increase calcium loss in the urine, lowering the calcium available for bone. This combination accelerates bone loss, especially in older individuals whose bone density is already declining with age. While low body weight, age, and lack of activity are risk factors, the effect of long-term glucocorticoid therapy is a direct and potent driver of osteoporosis, making it the factor most clearly increasing risk in an older male. Regular exercise and adequate calcium intake help reduce risk, whereas chronic steroid exposure drives it up.
Question 1
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Prepare with the APEA Management Orthopedics Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering suspected, septic, arthritis, finding, and apea. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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APEA Management Orthopedics Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on suspected, septic, arthritis, finding, and apea. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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