Question 1
Which statement about the comparison between the suitability standard and the fiduciary standard is correct?
Correct Answer:
Verbal disclosure may be adequate under the suitability standard but not the fiduciary standard.
Explanation:
The main idea is the difference in duties and disclosure expectations between the suitability standard and the fiduciary standard. Under the suitability standard, a recommendation just has to be suitable for the client’s needs and circumstances, and the disclosure can be less formal—verbal explanations about risks, fees, and conflicts may be enough if the product is deemed suitable. In contrast, the fiduciary standard requires acting in the client’s best interest with loyalty and care, and it demands full, clear disclosure of all material conflicts, typically in writing. Because of that higher duty, verbal disclosures alone do not meet fiduciary obligations. So the statement that verbal disclosure may be adequate under the suitability standard but not under the fiduciary standard is the best choice. The other options are inconsistent with how the two standards differ in loyalty and disclosure requirements, and in how they guide the advisor’s duties.
Question 2
Differentiate long-term vs short-term capital gains rates.
Correct Answer:
Short-term gains are taxed as ordinary income; long-term gains have reduced rates if held longer than one year.
Explanation:
The main idea being tested is how holding period changes how capital gains are taxed. If you sell an asset you’ve held for one year or less, the gain is taxed at ordinary income tax rates—the same brackets that apply to wages. If you hold the asset longer than one year, the gain qualifies for long-term capital gains rates, which are generally lower and depend on your taxable income and filing status (typically 0%, 15%, or 20%), with a possible 3.8% net investment income tax for higher earners. This is why the correct statement says short-term gains are taxed as ordinary income and long-term gains have reduced rates after a year. The other descriptions don’t reflect the holding-period distinction—long-term gains aren’t taxed at ordinary rates, and short-term gains aren’t tax-free.
Question 3
What is the primary purpose of a revocable living trust in estate planning?
Correct Answer:
To manage assets during the grantor’s life and transfer them to beneficiaries after death, while avoiding probate and maintaining flexibility since the trust is revocable.
Explanation:
A revocable living trust is designed to manage your assets during life and pass them to your beneficiaries after death, with the benefit of probate avoidance and ongoing flexibility because you can alter or revoke the trust at any time. In practice, you fund the trust with assets, appoint a trustee to handle them while you’re alive (often you and then a successor trustee after death or incapacity), and designate how and to whom they should be distributed when you’re gone. Because the trust is revocable, you retain control and can change beneficiaries, add or remove assets, or dissolve the trust entirely if your circumstances change. This setup helps avoid probate for assets placed in the trust, offering a quicker, more private transfer to heirs and a smoother plan if you become incapacitated. It’s not about tax deductions or permanently removing assets from your control, and it won’t automatically cover every asset—some assets still pass outside the trust (like those with designated beneficiaries) and the trust itself doesn’t provide tax benefits.
Question 4
What is the market return if the risk-free rate is 6.5% and the market risk premium is 7%?
Correct Answer:
13.5%
Explanation:
The market return is found by adding the risk-free rate to the market risk premium. In CAPM, the expected return on the market portfolio equals Rf + ERP, where the market risk premium is the extra return investors require for taking on market risk. With a risk-free rate of 6.5% and a market risk premium of 7%, the market return is 6.5% + 7% = 13.5%. So the best answer is 13.5%. The other values would result from misinterpreting the numbers or mis-adding.
Question 5
Second-to-die life insurance policy is primarily used to
Correct Answer:
pay estate taxes
Explanation:
Second-to-die life insurance is designed to help with estate planning by providing liquidity after both spouses have died. Because the policy pays only on the second death, it ensures there are funds available to cover estate taxes and settlement costs when heirs inherit, preventing the need to force the sale of assets or a business to meet tax obligations. It can also help preserve wealth for heirs and simplify wealth transfer. This type of policy isn’t typically used to fund a buy-sell agreement, which generally relies on policies that trigger on the death of one owner to buy out the deceased’s share. It also doesn’t address living expenses or immediate needs like paying a mortgage or funding college tuition, since the payout occurs after the second death rather than at the death of one individual.
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Prepare with the Accredited Wealth Management Advisor (AWMA) Exam 2 Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering market, standard, long-term, trust, and reits. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Accredited Wealth Management Advisor (AWMA) Exam 2 Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on market, standard, long-term, trust, and reits. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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