Question 1
Which two services are paid on a fee-for-service basis based on CPT code justified by ICD-10 code?
Correct Answer:
Hospital Ancillary Services and Clinicians Professional Services
Explanation:
Fee-for-service payment hinges on billing discrete services with CPT codes, using ICD-10 codes to justify why the service was needed. Hospital Ancillary Services fall into this pattern because these are the facility-based, individual services (like imaging, labs, therapies) billed separately with CPT codes, each tied to a supporting ICD-10 diagnosis. Clinicians’ Professional Services are the physician or clinician’s own billable work (evaluations, procedures) also billed by CPT codes and justified by ICD-10 diagnoses. This combination captures the classic per-service, CPT-driven reimbursement from both sides: the facility side and the professional services side. Inpatient room charges and pharmaceutical supplies aren’t billed as separate CPT-based services; they’re typically bundled into broader payment streams (like DRGs or facility charges). Home health and durable medical equipment are reimbursed under different systems and code sets (HCPCS for DME, PPS for home health), not the same CPT-based fee-for-service model.
Question 2
What are two diagrams used for FMEA?
Correct Answer:
Fishbone diagram (Ishikawa) and Swiss cheese model
Explanation:
FMEA relies on identifying potential failure modes and understanding both why they could occur and how they might escape detection. A Fishbone diagram (Ishikawa) provides a structured way to brainstorm and organize possible causes of a failure, grouping them into categories like people, procedures, equipment, materials, and environment so you can see all contributors at a glance. The Swiss cheese model offers a way to visualize how multiple layers of defense or safeguards have holes, and how those holes alignment can allow a failure to pass through. Using these two together helps you map out both the causes behind a failure and the defensive weaknesses that could let it reach the patient or system, guiding where to focus mitigation efforts. The other tools listed serve different purposes—defect prioritization, process monitoring, project planning, or strategic analysis—and are not the standard pairing used for FMEA.
Question 3
A low severity presenting problem is?
Correct Answer:
A problem where the risk of morbidity without treatment is low; there is little to no risk of mortality without treatment; full recovery without functional impairment is expected.
Explanation:
Low severity presenting problems are those with minimal risk of harm if untreated and an expectation of full recovery without lasting impairment. This means there is little to no chance of death or serious complications without treatment, and normal function is likely to be restored. That description matches the idea of low morbidity without treatment and full recovery without functional impairment, which is what defines a low-severity issue. The other descriptions point to higher risk or urgency—mortality risk without treatment, need for urgent surgery, or high risk of complications—so they do not fit the concept of low severity.
Question 4
Which of the following is NOT one of Starfield's four functions of primary care?
Correct Answer:
Screening for Rare Diseases
Explanation:
Starfield’s framework for primary care centers on four functions: being the first point of contact in the health system, providing ongoing care over time (longitudinality), coordinating care with other parts of the health system, and delivering care that covers a broad range of health needs (comprehensiveness). Screening for rare diseases isn’t one of these core functions. Primary care does include preventive screening for common conditions as part of comprehensive care, but screening specifically for rare diseases isn’t a general, defining function of primary care in Starfield’s model. The other options align with those four functions: acting as the entry point, maintaining an ongoing patient relationship, and coordinating with specialists and services.
Question 5
Which service is NOT covered by Medicare Part B?
Correct Answer:
Hospice care
Explanation:
Hospice care is not covered by Medicare Part B because hospice is a Part A benefit. Part B covers outpatient and clinician-provided services, including medically necessary services, clinical labs/diagnostics, and durable medical equipment. To receive hospice services, a patient must have Part A and elect hospice care, which is provided under the Part A hospice benefit rather than Part B.
Question 1
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Prepare with the Physician Assistants (PA) & Society Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering code, problem, services, physician, and assistants. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Physician Assistants (PA) & Society Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on code, problem, services, physician, and assistants. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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