Question 1
What is the Parkland formula and how is it applied for burn fluid resuscitation?
Correct Answer:
4 mL × body weight (kg) × %TBSA burned in the first 24 hours; half given in the first 8 hours from time of burn and the rest over the next 16 hours, with adjustments based on urine output and hemodynamics.
Explanation:
Fluid resuscitation after a significant burn is about restoring circulating volume as the body’s capillaries leak fluid. The Parkland formula provides a practical way to estimate how much crystalloid is needed in the first 24 hours. It uses lactated Ringer’s solution and prescribes a total amount equal to 4 mL per kilogram of body weight per percent of burn area (TBSA). Half of that total is given in the first 8 hours from the time of burn, and the remaining half over the next 16 hours. Time since injury matters, so if you arrive later, you base the schedule on how long ago the burn occurred. You don’t just send a fixed amount; you titrate based on how the patient is perfusing, using urine output and hemodynamic status as guides. A common target in adults is about 0.5 mL/kg/hour of urine output, adjusting fluid rate to avoid under-resuscitation or over-resuscitation. For example, a 70 kg patient with 40% TBSA burned would need about 11,200 mL in the first 24 hours (4 × 70 × 40). Split, that’s 5,600 mL in the first 8 hours and 5,600 mL over the next 16 hours. This approach aligns with the option describing the 4 mL × kg × %TBSA calculation, the 50% in the first 8 hours and 50% in the following 16 hours, with adjustments based on urine output and hemodynamics. Other formulations or statements that use different multipliers, longer time frames, or deny fluid resuscitation don’t reflect the standard burn resuscitation practice.
Question 2
Which preventive strategy reduces contractures in burn injuries?
Correct Answer:
Early wound coverage and physical therapy
Explanation:
Preventing burn-related contractures comes down to preserving joint motion as the wound heals. When skin is burned, scar tissue tends to contract as it forms, shortening surrounding tissues if movement is restricted and the wound takes time to close. Getting the wound covered early stabilizes the skin barrier, reduces prolonged inflammation and edema, and lowers infection risk, which together create a more favorable environment for healing. Once coverage is achieved, starting physical therapy right away allows gentle range-of-motion exercises and stretching to be performed, helping to maintain tissue length and prevent the tight, fixed positions that become contractures. Prolonged immobilization worsens the problem because the joints stay in a fixed position, promotional of stiffness and shortening of connective tissue. Delayed wound coverage prolongs the inflammatory phase and edema, increasing scar formation and the potential for contractures. While good nutrition supports overall healing, it by itself does not specifically prevent contractures; the direct preventive strategy is about timely coverage and active rehabilitation to maintain mobility.
Question 3
Which heart layer is the outermost layer of the heart?
Correct Answer:
Epicardium
Explanation:
The outermost layer of the heart itself is the epicardium, which is the visceral layer of the serous pericardium. This layer covers the external surface of the heart and is continuous with the parietal layer of the serous pericardium at the great vessels. The heart wall from inside to outside is endocardium, myocardium, then epicardium. The pericardial sac (fibrous plus serous pericardium) surrounds the heart, but it is not part of the heart wall itself. So epicardium sits as the outermost layer of the heart muscle and its surface.
Question 4
Theophylline is used for which conditions?
Correct Answer:
Asthma and COPD as a methylxanthine bronchodilator
Explanation:
Theophylline is a methylxanthine bronchodilator used to help open the airways in asthma and COPD. It works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, which raises cAMP levels in airway smooth muscle and promotes relaxation, and by blocking adenosine receptors that can promote bronchoconstriction. This combination makes it effective as a bronchodilator in these conditions. It’s distinct from other options: beta-agonists provide rapid bronchodilation by directly stimulating beta-2 receptors; corticosteroids reduce airway inflammation through gene-mediated effects; and leukotriene receptor antagonists block leukotriene signals involved in inflammation and bronchoconstriction. Because of its narrow therapeutic index and potential drug interactions, theophylline is used less often today, but it remains categorized as a methylxanthine bronchodilator for asthma and COPD.
Question 5
Loratadine is sold under which brand name?
Correct Answer:
Claritin
Explanation:
Brand names for antihistamines help you recognize the specific drug you’re using. Loratadine is sold under the brand name Claritin, a non-sedating second-generation antihistamine used for allergic symptoms. Other brands map to different antihistamines: Benadryl is diphenhydramine (older, more sedating), Zyrtec is cetirizine, and Allegra is fexofenadine. Knowing that Claritin = loratadine helps you read labels and understand exactly which medication you’re taking.
Question 1
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Prepare with the Pharmacology and Pathophysiology Hypertension, Allergies, Burns, and Hair Disorders Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering burn, heart, layer, hypertension, and diuretics. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Pharmacology and Pathophysiology Hypertension, Allergies, Burns, and Hair Disorders Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on burn, heart, layer, hypertension, and diuretics. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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