Question 1
Which drug class should be used with caution in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma due to risk of angle closure?
Correct Answer:
Corticosteroids
Explanation:
In narrow-angle glaucoma, keeping the pupil from dilating is important because pupil dilation can push the iris forward and narrow or close the drainage angle, triggering a dangerous rise in intraocular pressure. Medications that cause pupil dilation or increase sympathetic activity are the ones to use with caution in these patients. A decongestant like pseudoephedrine fits this risk profile because it can cause mydriasis (pupil dilation) and potentially precipitate angle closure in someone with a susceptible angle. So it’s the drug class to avoid or use with caution in this context. The other listed drugs don’t carry the same acute risk for angle closure. Corticosteroids can raise intraocular pressure in steroid responders over time, but they are not typically triggers for acute angle closure. NSAIDs and acetaminophen do not affect the angle in this way.
Question 2
Tobramycin is the most commonly used fortified antibiotic for sight-threatening ocular infections. Which of the following represents this fortified agent?
Correct Answer:
Tobramycin
Explanation:
Fortified topical antibiotics are high-concentration preparations used to achieve bactericidal levels in the cornea and anterior chamber for sight-threatening infections. The most commonly used fortified agent is tobramycin, prepared at a high dose (often around 14 mg/mL) to maximize coverage against gram-negative bacteria, including Pseudomonas. It’s typically used in combination with another antibiotic (such as cefazolin) to provide broad-spectrum coverage, especially for severe keratitis or endophthalmitis. So, the fortified agent described here is tobramycin. Cefazolin alone provides gram-positive coverage but is not the fortified agent by itself; vancomycin and gentamicin can be used in fortifications in certain scenarios, but tobramycin is the standard first choice for sight-threatening cases.
Question 3
Donepezil (a cholinesterase inhibitor used for Alzheimer’s disease) is listed as capable of decreasing intraocular pressure. Which option is correct?
Correct Answer:
Donepezil
Explanation:
Donepezil lowers intraocular pressure by increasing acetylcholine in the eye. By inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, it boosts parasympathetic activity, and the extra acetylcholine stimulates muscarinic receptors on the ciliary muscle. This causes the ciliary muscle to contract, opening the trabecular meshwork and enhancing aqueous humor outflow, which reduces IOP. The other drugs listed lower IOP through their own glaucoma-specific mechanisms (prostaglandin-mediated outflow, alpha-adrenergic–mediated outflow plus reduced production, or beta-blocker–mediated production reduction), but the question highlights donepezil as the agent capable of SAMPLEdecreasing IOP through cholinergic stimulation.
Question 4
Which over-the-counter decongestant can cause blurry vision and diplopia, particularly with high intraocular pressure?
Correct Answer:
Pseudoephedrine
Explanation:
Pupil dilation and increased intraocular pressure can be triggered by systemic sympathetic stimulation from certain OTC decongestants. Pseudoephedrine is a common example that activates alpha-adrenergic receptors, providing decongestion but also potentially dilating the pupil. In eyes with high intraocular pressure or narrow angles, this dilation can worsen outflow obstruction and raise IOP, leading to blurred vision and even diplopia in susceptible individuals. The other options lack this decongestant mechanism or don’t have the same risk of raising IOP; for instance, anticholinergic medicines like diphenhydramine can cause blurred vision through accommodation effects, but they’re not decongestants, and acetaminophen and ibuprofen don’t typically affect vision or IOP.
Question 5
Which generation of fluoroquinolones includes drugs commonly used as fortified topical antibiotics for ocular infections?
Correct Answer:
3rd/4th Gen Fluoroquinolones
Explanation:
The key idea is that fortified topical therapy for eye infections relies on fluoroquinolones with broad spectrum and strong tissue penetration, so later generations are favored. Third- and fourth-generation fluoroquinolones have enhanced activity against a wide range of organisms, including Gram-positive bacteria such as Staphylococcus aureus (and some MRSA) as well as excellent Pseudomonas coverage, and they achieve good corneal and intraocular penetration. This makes them well suited for high-concentration, fortified formulations used in serious ocular infections like keratitis and endophthalmitis. Examples include levofloxacin (3rd generation) and the 4th-generation agents like moxifloxacin and gatifloxacin. While earlier generations can cover Pseudomonas, they have relatively less Gram-positive activity and are less favorable for fortified regimens, so the 3rd/4th generations are the best fit for fortified topical therapy.
Question 1
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About this Exam

Prepare with the NBEO Part II Treatment and Management of Ocular Disease (TMOD) Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering fortified, ocular, infections, commonly, and antibiotic. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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NBEO Part II Treatment and Management of Ocular Disease (TMOD) Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on fortified, ocular, infections, commonly, and antibiotic. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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