Question 1
An 82-year-old woman presents with post-prandial dull abdomen pain that has been present for almost a year. She dropped 25 pounds in the previous three months as a result of avoiding oral intake due to worsening discomfort symptoms. Her symptoms have not improved after repeated normal upper endoscopies and long-term proton-pump inhibitor medication. She underwent a laparoscopic cholecystectomy six months earlier for several tiny gallstones, which were discovered during a right upper quadrant ultrasound. Four months ago, a colonoscopy revealed a solitary, fully excised pedunculated tubular adenoma. A CT scan was conducted, and it reveals no indication of cancer (see below). The patient is cachectic upon examination. Her abdomen is soft and not painful to the touch, and no lumps are visible. An analysis of the lab results reveals microcytic anemia and an albumin level of 2.4. The most effective course of treatment for this patient would be:
Correct Answer:
Selective angiography
Question 2
A dental operation is being performed on a 45-year-old male who had a prosthetic aortic valve replaced five years prior. Given its better absorption, which preventive antibiotics are advised?
Correct Answer:
Oral amoxicillin
Question 3
A 73-year-old man who has a history of atrial fibrillation and hypertension appears with mid-abdominal pain that started out of nowhere. A little while afterwards, I had a black, liquid bowel movement. There are no signs of peritonitis on an abdominal exam. The patient does, however, have leukocytosis. He is brought into the surgery room to be examined. The ascending colon, cecum, and distal small bowel appear dark and purple. What will management do next?
Correct Answer:
Revascularization followed by bowel resection
Question 4
A 59-year-old man who has a slight fullness behind his right knee but no pain or restrictions in knee motion presents. He smokes 30 packs a year, consumes 1 to 2 beers socially each year, and takes hydrochlorothiazide to control his hypertension. He was examined because of a noticeable popliteal pulse, and duplex ultrasonography revealed a 3.4 cm popliteal aneurysm. His left lower extremity pulses are normal, as are the femoral and distal pulses on his right leg. The best course of action for management would be:
Correct Answer:
Abdominal ultrasound
Question 5
What pulmonary function test is the most effective at predicting postoperative performance when lobectomy is being considered?
Correct Answer:
Predicted postoperative forced expiratory volume (FEV) in 1 second (FEV1)
Question 1
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Prepare with the MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) Professional Examination practice quiz. This question bank includes 107 questions covering patient, year-old, right, pain, and mechanism. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) Professional Examination

This practice set contains 107 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on patient, year-old, right, pain, and mechanism. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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