Question 1
A 68-year-old man presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and a persistent non-productive cough. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) of the chest reveals bilateral, subpleural, and basal-predominant reticular opacities associated with subpleural honeycombing and peripheral traction bronchiectasis. There are no upper-zone predominant lesions, extensive ground-glass opacities, or air trapping. According to the international ATS/ERS/JRS/ALAT consensus guidelines, which HRCT pattern is demonstrated?
Correct Answer:
Definite Usual Interstitial Pneumonia (UIP) pattern
Question 2
A 54-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia (115 bpm), and hypoxemia. Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) confirms acute bilateral pulmonary emboli in the main pulmonary arteries. On the axial 4-chamber reconstructed views, the right ventricular (RV) internal diameter measures 48 mm, while the left ventricular (LV) internal diameter measures 36 mm. Contrast reflux into the inferior vena cava and flattening of the interventricular septum are also noted. What is the clinical significance of these CTPA findings?
Correct Answer:
They represent acute right ventricular strain (RV/LV ratio > 1.0), which stratifies the patient into an intermediate- or high-risk category for adverse clinical outcomes
Question 3
A 64-year-old male smoker undergoes staging CT and PET/CT for a biopsy-proven non-small cell lung cancer. The primary tumor is a 4.2 cm mass in the right upper lobe. Staging imaging demonstrates a separate 1.5 cm malignant nodule in the right lower lobe, as well as ipsilateral mediastinal (station 4R) and subcarinal (station 7) lymph nodes with avid FDG uptake (SUVmax 8.5). No distant metastases or contralateral nodes are detected. According to the IASLC/UICC TNM 8th edition staging system, what is the correct TNM stage for this patient?
Correct Answer:
T4 N2 M0 (Stage IIIB)
Question 4
A 72-year-old male with long-standing poorly controlled hypertension presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset, severe, tearing interscapular back pain. Contrast-enhanced CT angiography (CTA) of the chest and abdomen reveals a hyperdense crescentic thickening of the aortic wall on non-contrast CT that does not enhance on contrast-enhanced phases, extending from distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery down to the celiac axis. There is no intimal flap or false lumen flow, and all branch vessels are widely patent. What is the diagnosis and appropriate initial management strategy according to international thoracic aortic guidelines?
Correct Answer:
Acute Stanford Type B aortic intramural hematoma (IMH); initial management is medical therapy with intravenous beta-blockers and strict blood pressure control, reserving TEVAR for complications
Question 5
A 58-year-old man with a history of anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction 6 months ago undergoes cardiac magnetic resonance (CMR) imaging to evaluate myocardial viability prior to revascularization. Late gadolinium enhancement (LGE) imaging demonstrates transmural enhancement involving >75% of the wall thickness in the mid-to-apical anterior and anteroseptal segments. How does this finding translate into the likelihood of functional myocardial recovery following coronary revascularization?
Correct Answer:
The likelihood of functional recovery is extremely low (<10-15%), as >75% transmural LGE reflects irreversible scar tissue and complete loss of functional reserve
Question 1
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Prepare with the Facharzt FMH Radiologie Practice Questions - Facharzt FMH für Radiologie Spécialiste FMH en radiologie Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 100 questions covering year-old, presents, demonstrates, right, and diagnosis. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Facharzt FMH Radiologie Practice Questions - Facharzt FMH für Radiologie Spécialiste FMH en radiologie Exam

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