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Question 1
A 56-year-old postmenopausal woman undergoes breast-conserving surgery and sentinel lymph node biopsy for an invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast. Pathology reveals a 2.2 cm, grade 2 tumor with 2 positive sentinel lymph nodes (pT2 pN1a M0). The tumor is estrogen receptor (ER) 95% positive, progesterone receptor (PR) 80% positive, and HER2-negative (IHC 1+). A 21-gene recurrence score (Oncotype DX) assay returns a recurrence score of 28. According to ESMO guidelines and landmark clinical trial data, what is the most appropriate systemic adjuvant treatment strategy?
Correct Answer:
Adjuvant chemotherapy (anthracycline/taxane-based) followed by an aromatase inhibitor plus 2 years of the CDK4/6 inhibitor abemaciclib
Question 2
A 49-year-old woman with metastatic HER2-positive (IHC 3+) invasive ductal breast cancer experiences disease progression in the liver and lungs while receiving first-line maintenance trastuzumab and pertuzumab following induction docetaxel. She is asymptomatic with an ECOG performance status of 0 and normal baseline left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF 60%). Based on ESMO guidelines and the DESTINY-Breast03 trial, what is the standard second-line systemic therapy of choice?
Correct Answer:
Trastuzumab deruxtecan (T-DXd)
Question 3
A 62-year-old woman with metastatic ER-positive, HER2-low (IHC 1+, ISH-negative) breast cancer develops symptomatic bone and visceral liver metastases after progressing through two prior lines of endocrine therapy plus CDK4/6 inhibition and one line of single-agent paclitaxel chemotherapy. Her ECOG performance status is 1. Which systemic therapy is supported by Phase III trial data (DESTINY-Breast04) to provide statistically significant progression-free and overall survival benefits in this setting?
Correct Answer:
Trastuzumab deruxtecan (T-DXd)
Question 4
A 42-year-old premenopausal woman is diagnosed with clinical stage IIB (cT2 cN1 M0) triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC). Genetic testing is negative for germline BRCA1/2 mutations. In accordance with the KEYNOTE-522 trial and ESMO guidelines, what is the standard neoadjuvant and adjuvant treatment paradigm?
Correct Answer:
Neoadjuvant pembrolizumab combined with carboplatin/paclitaxel followed by doxorubicin/cyclophosphamide, then definitive surgery, followed by adjuvant pembrolizumab to complete 1 year
Question 5
A 38-year-old woman with a documented deleterious germline BRCA1 mutation completes neoadjuvant anthracycline/taxane chemotherapy and bilateral mastectomy for triple-negative breast cancer. Final surgical pathology reveals residual invasive carcinoma measuring 1.8 cm with 1 positive axillary lymph node (ypT1c ypN1a, non-pCR). Which adjuvant targeted therapy is indicated based on the Phase III OlympiA trial to improve invasive disease-free and overall survival?
Correct Answer:
Adjuvant Olaparib orally for 1 year
Question 1
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Prepare with the Facharzt FMH Medizinische Onkologie Practice Questions - Facharzt FMH für Medizinische Onkologie Spécialiste FMH en oncologie médicale Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 100 questions covering year-old, metastatic, systemic, standard, and trial. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Facharzt FMH Medizinische Onkologie Practice Questions - Facharzt FMH für Medizinische Onkologie Spécialiste FMH en oncologie médicale Exam

This practice set contains 100 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on year-old, metastatic, systemic, standard, and trial. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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