Question 1
A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with 90 minutes of crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm and diaphoresis. An ECG shows 3 mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal ST depression in leads I and aVL. The nearest primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) facility is located 3 hours away. According to Argentine and international cardiology guidelines, what is the most appropriate immediate reperfusion strategy?
Correct Answer:
Immediate intravenous fibrinolytic therapy (e.g., tenecteplase or alteplase) within 10 minutes of diagnosis, followed by transfer to a PCI-capable center
Question 2
A 64-year-old woman with ischemic cardiomyopathy and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 28% (NYHA Class II) is evaluated in the outpatient clinic. Her blood pressure is 125/78 mmHg, heart rate is 68 bpm, and serum creatinine is 1.0 mg/dL with potassium 4.2 mEq/L. She is currently taking enalapril 10 mg twice daily and carvedilol 25 mg twice daily. According to guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), which medication modification is most appropriate to reduce mortality?
Correct Answer:
Switch enalapril to sacubitril/valsartan (ARNI) after a 36-hour washout period, and add a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (spironolactone) and an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin)
Question 3
A 71-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for routine evaluation. An ECG reveals asymptomatic atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response of 84 bpm. Her echocardiogram shows normal left ventricular function and a mildly enlarged left atrium. Her CHA2DS2-VASc score is calculated. What is the recommended strategy regarding stroke prevention?
Correct Answer:
Initiate oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC, e.g., apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran) or a vitamin K antagonist
Question 4
A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with severe headache, blurred vision, and confusion. His blood pressure is 220/130 mmHg. Fundoscopic examination reveals bilateral flame-shaped retinal hemorrhages, soft exudates, and papilledema. Urinalysis reveals proteinuria and microscopic hematuria. What is the diagnosis and the target blood pressure reduction in the first hour?
Correct Answer:
Hypertensive emergency (malignant hypertension); reduce mean arterial pressure (MAP) by no more than 20% to 25% within the first hour using intravenous antihypertensive therapy
Question 5
A 45-year-old man with a history of bicuspid aortic valve presents with a 3-week history of low-grade fever, night sweats, fatigue, and weight loss. On examination, a new 3/6 diastolic murmur is audible at the left sternal border, and subungual splinter hemorrhages are noted. Three separate sets of blood cultures obtained over 24 hours grow Streptococcus gallolyticus (formerly S. bovis). In addition to echocardiography and tailored antibiotic therapy, which diagnostic evaluation is mandatory?
Correct Answer:
Complete colonoscopy to evaluate for colorectal adenoma or carcinoma
Question 1
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Prepare with the Examen Único de Residencias Córdoba (Medicina) Practice Questions - Córdoba Health Residencies Single Examination (Examen Único de Residencias en Salud - Córdoba Medicina) Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 100 questions covering year-old, presents, examination, serum, and fever. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Examen Único de Residencias Córdoba (Medicina) Practice Questions - Córdoba Health Residencies Single Examination (Examen Único de Residencias en Salud - Córdoba Medicina) Exam

This practice set contains 100 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on year-old, presents, examination, serum, and fever. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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